1. Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of ‘Gandhi Peace Prize’?
- The President of India
- The Prime Minister of India
- The Chief Justice of India
- The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (UPSC Prelims 2025)
[A] 2 and 4 only
[B] 1, 2 and 3
[C] 2, 3 and 4
[D] 1 and 3 only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [2, 3 and 4]
Notes:The correct answer is
[C] 2, 3 and 4. The Gandhi Peace Prize is a prestigious international award instituted by the Government of India in 1995 to commemorate the 125th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.The selection of the awardee is made by a high-level
Jury chaired by the
Prime Minister of India. According to the code of procedure, the Jury consists of the following five members:
- The Prime Minister of India (Statement 2 – Correct): Acts as the Chairman of the Jury.
- The Chief Justice of India (Statement 3 – Correct): A permanent ex-officio member.
- The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha (Statement 4 – Correct): A permanent ex-officio member. If there is no recognized Leader of Opposition, the leader of the largest Opposition Party in the Lok Sabha is included.
- Two Eminent Persons: These are nominated members, such as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and one other distinguished individual.
The President of India (Statement 1 – Incorrect): The President is the one who confers the award at a formal ceremony at Rashtrapati Bhavan, but they are not a member of the selection Jury.The prize is open to all persons regardless of nationality, race, language, caste, creed, or gender. It carries a cash award of 1 crore, a citation, and a plaque. Notable past recipients include Nelson Mandela, Sheikh Mujibur Rahman, and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
2. Consider the following statements about Lokpal:
The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2025)
[A] III only
[B] II and III
[C] I and IV
[D] None of the above statements is correct
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [III only]
Notes:The correct answer is
[A] III only. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, established the Lokpal as an anti-corruption authority at the central level with specific structural and jurisdictional mandates.
- Statement 1 – Incorrect: According to Section 1 of the Act, the jurisdiction of the Lokpal extends to public servants serving both in India and outside India. It covers all categories of public servants (Groups A, B, C, and D) regardless of their posting location.
- Statement 2 – Incorrect: While it is true that a Member of Parliament or State Legislature cannot be a member of the Lokpal, the second part of the statement is wrong. The Chairperson can be a person who is or has been a Chief Justice of India, OR a Judge of the Supreme Court, OR an eminent person with at least 25 years of specialized knowledge in anti-corruption policy, public administration, or law.
- Statement 3 – Correct: Section 3(3) of the Act specifically mandates that the Chairperson or a Member shall not be less than forty-five years of age at the time of assuming office.
- Statement 4 – Incorrect: The Lokpal has the power to inquire into allegations of corruption against the Prime Minister. However, there are safeguards: an inquiry can only be initiated if a full bench of the Lokpal considers it, and at least two-thirds of the members approve it. Inquiries related to international relations, external/internal security, public order, atomic energy, and space are excluded.
The Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and a maximum of eight members, of whom 50% must be judicial members and 50% must come from SC/ST/OBC/Minorities/Women categories.
3. With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements :
- The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
- At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2024)
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [2 only]
Notes:The correct answer is
[B] 2 only. {Note: UPSC official Key keeps it C, Both 1 & 2, which we think is erroneous if we go by Constitutional Provisions}
- Annual Financial Statement (Statement 1 – Incorrect): Under Article 112 of the Constitution, it is the President of India who causes the Annual Financial Statement (Budget) to be laid before both Houses of Parliament. While the Finance Minister actually presents the Budget and delivers the speech, they do so on behalf of the President, not the Prime Minister.
- Demand for Grants (Statement 2 – Correct): According to Article 113, no demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President. This ensures executive responsibility over public expenditure. After the general discussion on the Budget, the Lok Sabha votes on these demands; notably, the Rajya Sabha can only discuss them but has no power to vote on them.
- Constitutional Provisions: The Budget process is strictly governed by Articles 112–117. Revenue raising (Money Bills) also requires the prior recommendation of the President under Article 117(1).
4. Consider the following statements:
- The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
- The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2022)
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [2 only]
Notes:The correct answer is
[B] 2 only. This question focuses on the constitutional provisions regarding the Council of Ministers versus executive practice.
- Statement 1 (Incorrect): While the Council of Ministers is practically categorized into these four ranks (Cabinet, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State, and Deputy Minister), the Constitution of India does not define or classify these ranks. This classification is based on British parliamentary convention and the Salaries and Allowances of Ministers Act, 1952. The Constitution only mentions the “Council of Ministers” under Article 74 and Article 75, and specifically refers to the “Cabinet” only once in Article 352 (added by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978).
- Statement 2 (Correct): This provision was added by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003. According to Article 75(1A), the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Union Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha). This was introduced to prevent jumbo cabinets and ensure fiscal discipline.
It is worth noting that a similar provision applies to the States under Article 164(1A), where the number of ministers (including the Chief Minister) cannot exceed 15 percent of the Legislative Assembly, with a minimum requirement of 12 ministers.
5. The world’s second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja? (UPSC Prelims 2022)
[A] The best means of salvation was devotion.
[B] Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly authoritative.
[C] Logical arguments were essential means for the highest bliss.
[D] Salvation was to be obtained through meditation.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [The best means of salvation was devotion.]
Notes:The correct answer is
[A] The best means of salvation was devotion. This refers to the
Statue of Equality in Hyderabad, which commemorates the 11th-century Bhakti saint Ramanuja.
- Devotion (Statement A – Correct): Ramanuja was the leading exponent of the Vishishtadvaita (qualified monism) school of Vedanta. He taught that Bhakti (intense devotion) to Lord Vishnu was the primary path to salvation (moksha). Unlike some earlier schools, he emphasized that the grace of God is essential for liberation.
- Vedas and Authority (Statement B – Incorrect): While Ramanuja respected the Vedas, this specific description (eternal and self-existent) is more characteristic of the Mimamsa school of philosophy. Ramanuja’s focus was on the synthesis of the Vedas and the Tamil Prabandhams (the Ubhaya Vedanta).
- Logical Arguments (Statement C – Incorrect): Although Ramanuja was a brilliant logician who wrote the Sri Bhashya, he argued that logic alone cannot lead to the highest bliss. He believed that Brahman is known through scripture and realized through devotion, not just intellectual gymnastics.
- Meditation (Statement D – Incorrect): While meditation (dhyana) was part of his practice, Ramanuja specifically advocated for Prapatti (total surrender) and Bhakti over the abstract, knowledge-based meditation (Jnana-marga) popularized by Adi Shankara.
Historically, Ramanuja was a great social reformer who challenged the rigid caste system by opening temple entry to the marginalized and emphasizing that spiritual liberation was available to all, regardless of social status.
6. Consider the following statements:
- The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
- The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2019)
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [2 only]
Notes:The correct answer is
[B] 2 only. This question tests knowledge of landmark constitutional amendments and the evolution of the “Basic Structure” doctrine in India.
- Statement 1 (Incorrect): It was the 39th Amendment Act (1975), passed during the Emergency by the Indira Gandhi government, that placed the election of the President, Vice-President, Prime Minister, and Speaker of the Lok Sabha beyond the scope of judicial review. The 44th Amendment Act (1978), passed by the Janata Government, actually worked to restore democratic safeguards and omitted such restrictive provisions to ensure the rule of law.
- Statement 2 (Correct): In 2015, the Supreme Court of India, in the Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India case, struck down the 99th Amendment Act and the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act. The Court ruled that the NJAC interfered with the independence of the judiciary, which is a part of the “Basic Structure” of the Constitution, thereby restoring the “Collegium System” for the appointment of judges.
Key Historical ContextThe 39th Amendment was a direct response to the Allahabad High Court judgment that invalidated Indira Gandhi’s election. Conversely, the striking down of the 99th Amendment remains one of the most significant instances of the judiciary asserting its independence against a unanimous parliamentary move.Historically, the balance of power between the Executive and Judiciary has shifted through these amendments, with the Supreme Court consistently using the Kesavananda Bharati precedent to protect constitutional integrity.
7. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of (UPSC Prelims 2019)
[A] Jawaharlal Nehru
[B] Lal Bahadur Shastri
[C] Indira Gandhi
[D] Morarji Desai
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Jawaharlal Nehru]
Notes:The correct answer is
[A] Jawaharlal Nehru. The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution of India to protect land reform and other laws from being challenged in the courts on the grounds of violating Fundamental Rights.
- Origin (First Amendment): The Ninth Schedule was introduced by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951, during the tenure of India’s first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru.
- Purpose: It was created to circumvent judicial hurdles faced by land reform legislation, specifically the abolition of the Zamindari system. Article 31B was inserted along with the schedule to provide a “protective umbrella” to laws included within it.
- Article 31B: This article specifies that none of the acts or regulations mentioned in the Ninth Schedule shall be deemed void on the ground that they are inconsistent with any Fundamental Rights.
- Evolution of the Schedule: While it initially contained only 13 acts related to land reforms, it has grown over the decades to include more than 280 laws covering various subjects like reservation and trade.
- Judicial Review (I.R. Coelho Case): In 2007, the Supreme Court ruled in the I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu case that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973 (the date of the Kesavananda Bharati judgment), are open to judicial review if they violate the “Basic Structure” of the Constitution.
Historically, the creation of this schedule marked the first major confrontation between the Executive/Legislature and the Judiciary regarding the scope of the power to amend the Constitution.
8. With reference to ‘Quality Council of India (QCI)’, consider the following statements :
- QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry.
- Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2017)
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Both 1 and 2]
Notes:The correct answer is
[C] Both 1 and 2. The Quality Council of India (QCI) was established to create a national accreditation structure and promote quality across various sectors.
- Joint Setup (Statement 1 – Correct): QCI was set up in 1997 as an autonomous body. It was a joint initiative of the Government of India (through the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade – DPIIT) and the Indian Industry, represented by three premier industry associations:
- Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM)
- Confederation of Indian Industry (CII)
- Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI)
- Appointment of Chairman (Statement 2 – Correct): The Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister of India. This appointment is made based on the recommendations submitted by the industry associations to the Government. This ensures a public-private partnership model in its leadership.
Key Facts about QCI:
- Nature: It is a non-profit society registered under the Societies Registration Act of 1860.
- Nodal Department: The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- Objective: It operates the National Accreditation Structure and provides accreditation to bodies performing third-party assessment of quality. It also leads the ZED (Zero Defect Zero Effect) movement in the MSME sector.
- Revenue: While it was started with government support, it is now a self-sustaining organization that generates revenue through its accreditation and quality promotion services.
9. Consider the following statements:
- The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
- The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2015)
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Neither 1 nor 2]
Notes:The correct answer is
[D] Neither 1 nor 2. Both statements are technically incorrect based on the specific constitutional and administrative provisions of the Government of India.
- Executive Power (Statement 1 – Incorrect): According to Article 53(1) of the Constitution of India, the executive power of the Union is vested in the President. It is exercised by the President either directly or through officers subordinate to them in accordance with the Constitution. While the Prime Minister is the de facto (real) executive head, the President is the de jure (nominal/titular) executive head. All executive actions of the Government of India are formally taken in the name of the President (Article 77).
- Civil Services Board (Statement 2 – Incorrect): The Cabinet Secretary, not the Prime Minister, is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. The Cabinet Secretary is the highest-ranking civil servant in the country and the head of the administrative hierarchy.
- The Civil Services Board (CSB) was established to provide a more stable tenure for bureaucrats and to handle matters related to the transfer and posting of Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officers.
- The Prime Minister is actually the ex officio Chairman of NITI Aayog, the National Selection Committee for certain appointments, and the Department of Atomic Energy, but not the CSB.
Key Roles for Comparison:
| Office/Body |
Presiding Officer |
| Union Executive (Head) |
President of India |
| Civil Services Board |
Cabinet Secretary |
| NITI Aayog |
Prime Minister |
| National Development Council |
Prime Minister |
| Inter-State Council |
Prime Minister |
Constitutional Logic: In a Parliamentary form of government, there is a distinction between the “Head of State” (President) and the “Head of Government” (Prime Minister). The “Executive Power” is legally vested in the Head of State to maintain continuity and constitutional order, while the power is politically exercised by the Head of Government.
10. Consider the following statements:
- The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
- All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2014)
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [1 only]
Notes:The correct answer is
[A] 1 only.
- Statement 1 – Correct: According to Article 77(3), the President has the authority to make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India. This includes the Allocation of Business Rules, which dictate how various departments and ministries are assigned to specific Ministers. While the President signs these rules, they are actually framed by the Cabinet Secretariat.
- Statement 2 – Incorrect: Under Article 77(1), all executive actions of the Government of India must be expressed to be taken in the name of the President, not the Prime Minister. While the Prime Minister is the real executive head who makes the decisions, the President is the formal or titular head of the State, and all official orders and instruments are authenticated in the President’s name.
Key Constitutional Provisions for Conduct of Business:
| Provision |
Authority |
Description |
| Article 77(1) |
President |
All executive actions are taken in the President’s name. |
| Article 77(2) |
President |
Orders made in the President’s name shall be authenticated as specified in rules. |
| Article 77(3) |
President |
Rules for allocation of business among Ministers. |
Why the Distinction Matters:This structure reflects the Westminster model of parliamentary democracy. Even though the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers hold the actual power, the “dignified” part of the constitution requires the President to be the face of all executive actions to maintain continuity and legal formality.