41. Which of the following is/are mentioned under the Concurrent List?
- Forests
- Agriculture and animal husbandry
- Adulteration
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 and 2
[B] Only 1 and 3
[C] Only 2 and 3
[D] All of the above
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Only 1 and 3]
Notes:
Agriculture and animal husbandry comes under the state list. Forests and Adulteration are enlisted under the Concurrent List. The Concurrent List or List-III (Seventh Schedule) is a list of 52 items (though the last item is numbered 47) given in the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India. It includes the power to be considered by both the Central and the State Government.
42. With respect to the newly notified rules for consumer commissions under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, consider the following statements:
- The state commissions will have jurisdiction to entertain complaints with value between Rs 50 lakh and Rs 2 crore.
- The Act provides a two-tier quasi-judicial redressal mechanism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Only 1 ]
Notes:
The Ministry of Consumer Affairs has established new monetary jurisdictions for consumer commissions under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. District commissions handle complaints up to Rs 50 lakh, state commissions for complaints between Rs 50 lakh and Rs 2 crore, and the National Commission for those exceeding Rs 2 crore. The Act creates a three-tier quasi-judicial mechanism: district, state, and national commissions, each with defined pecuniary limits. This structure aims to reduce case backlogs. Complaints must be resolved within three months if no analysis is needed, or five months if testing is required. Additionally, the Act allows for mediation to expedite dispute resolution with mutual consent.
43. Which of the following statements on Indian Telegraph Right of Way( Amendment) Rules, 2021 is/are correct?
- It has set the maximum amount for one-time compensation for establishment of under-ground optical fibre lines.
- It covers only the over-ground lines.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Neither 1 nor 2]
Notes:
The Indian Telegraph Right of Way (Amendment) Rules set one-time compensation for over-ground telegraph lines at 1,000 INR per kilometer. Unlike previous rules that only addressed underground optical fiber cables and mobile towers, the 2021 rules include over-ground lines. All fees have been eliminated except for administrative and restoration charges related to the telegraph infrastructure.
44. Consider the following statements:
- A capitation fee refers to the collection of payment by educational bodies not included in the prospectus of the institution.
- The Prohibition of Unfair Practices in Technical Educational Institutions, Medical Institutions and Universities Bill 2010 deals with matters related to Capitation fees.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Both 1 & 2]
Notes:
- In the context of Indian law, a capitation fee refers to the collection of payment by educational bodies not included in the prospectus of the institution, usually in exchange for admission to the institution.
- The Prohibition of Unfair Practices in Technical Educational Institutions, Medical Institutions and Universities Bill 2010 deals with matters related to Capitation fees.
45. With reference to the First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951, consider the following statements:
- The grounds on which the State could restrict free speech were expanded.
- Article 31A was inserted, creating the Ninth Schedule to the Constitution.
- Citizenship as eligibility criteria for certain posts was included in Part II of the Constitution.
- Article 15 of Fundamental Rights was amended.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1, 2 & 4
[C] Only 2, 3 & 4
[D] Only 1, 2, 3 & 4
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Only 1, 2 & 4]
Notes:
The First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951 expanded grounds for restricting free speech (Article 19), amended Article 15 to allow reservations for SCs and STs, and inserted Article 31A while introducing the Ninth Schedule. Citizenship as eligibility for certain posts does not pertain to Part II; this was addressed elsewhere in the amendment. Hence, statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
46. Consider the following statements about Section 152 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS):
- It replaces Section 124A of the IPC, which addressed sedition.
- It criminalizes acts that incite or attempt to incite secession or armed rebellion.
- It excludes provisions related to electronic communication or financial means used for committing the offense.
How many of the above statements are correct?
[A] Only one
[B] Only two
[C] All three
[D] None
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Only two]
Notes:
- Statement 1 Correct-Section 152 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) replaces Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), which dealt with sedition.
- Statement 2 Correct- It criminalizes acts that incite or attempt to incite secession or armed rebellion.
- Statement 3 Incorrect- Section 152 includes provisions for the use of electronic communication and financial means in the commission of the offense.
47. Regarding the RBI Ombudsman Scheme, consider the following statements:
- The Ombudsman Scheme was launched in 2021 to address banking customer complaints.
- It does not cover non-scheduled primary co-operative banks with a deposit size of Rs 50 crore.
- The scheme has a high complaint disposal rate, exceeding 90% in recent years.
- RBI’s Executive Director in charge of the Consumer Education and Protection Department is the Appellate Authority under the integrated scheme.
How many statements are correct?
[A] Only one
[B] Only two
[C] Only three
[D] All four
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Only three]
Notes:
- The Ombudsman Scheme was launched in 2021 to address banking customer complaints: This is correct. The scheme was indeed launched on November 12, 2021.
- It does not cover non-scheduled primary co-operative banks with a deposit size of Rs 50 crore: This is incorrect. It includes non-scheduled primary co-operative banks with a deposit size of Rs 50 crore and above. The integrated scheme makes it a “One Nation One Ombudsman’ approach and jurisdiction-neutral.
- The scheme has a high disposal rate of complaints, achieving over 90% in recent years: This is correct. The disposal rate has been over 90% in recent years, indicating efficiency.
- RBI’s Executive Director in charge of the Consumer Education and Protection Department is the Appellate Authority under the integrated scheme: This is correct.RBI’s Executive Director in charge of the Consumer Education and Protection Department would be the Appellate Authority under the integrated scheme.
48. Consider the following statements about the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS):
- The UPS will be regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).
- The scheme guarantees a monthly pension of 50% of the employee’s average basic pay in the last 12 months before retirement.
- Employees must contribute 15% of their basic pay under the UPS.
How many of the above statements are correct?
[A] Only one
[B] Only two
[C] All three
[D] None
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Only two]
Notes:
- The UPS will be regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA). Correct: The UPS is regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).
- The scheme guarantees a monthly pension of 50% of the employee’s average basic pay in the last 12 months before retirement. Correct: It guarantees a monthly pension amounting to 50% of the average basic pay during the last 12 months of service.
- Employees must contribute 15% of their basic pay under the UPS. Incorrect: The employees contribute 10% of their basic pay under the scheme, not 15%.
49. With reference to the Aircraft Act, 1934, recently replaced by the Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024, consider the following statements:
- The Aircraft Act of 1934 was enacted primarily to promote commercial aviation among Indian enterprises
- It was designed during British rule, with a focus on military and administrative control over Indian airspace
- The Act became increasingly outdated due to the rise in private sector participation and technological advancements
Which of the above statements is / are correct?
[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 2 and 3 only
[C] 1 and 3 only
[D] 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [2 and 3 only]
Notes:
The 1934 Act aimed at control, not development, making statement 1 incorrect. However, statement 2 is correct as the Act was designed during British rule with a focus on military and administrative control over Indian airspace. Statement 3 is also accurate, as the Act became outdated due to the rise in private sector participation and technological advancements.
50. Consider the following statements regarding the Doctrine of Pith and Substance:
- It is invoked when a law enacted by one legislature incidentally encroaches upon the domain of another.
- The doctrine is used to determine the true nature of legislation.
- If the substance of a law is within competence, incidental overlap does not make it invalid.
- The doctrine was borrowed by India from Canadian constitutional law.
Which of the above statements are correct?
[A] Only 1 and 2
[B] 1, 2, 3 and 4
[C] 1, 3 and 4 only
[D] 2 and 3 only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [1, 2, 3 and 4]
Notes:
The Doctrine of Pith and Substance is used to ascertain the true nature or subject matter of legislation when legislative competence between Union and State Lists is in question. If a law, in substance, falls within legislature’s authority, its incidental overlap with another domain does not invalidate it. The doctrine originates from Canadian constitutional law. All the above statements accurately describe key facets of the doctrine.
