1. Consider the following statements:
- At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the Declaration on Climate and Health.
- The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize the health sector.
- If India’s health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (UPSC Prelims 2025)
[A] Both Statement 2 and Statement 3 are correct and both of them explain Statement 1
[B] Both Statement 2 and Statement 3 are correct but only one of them explains Statement 1
[C] Only one of the Statements 2 and 3 is correct and that explains Statement 1
[D] Neither Statement 2 nor Statement 3 is correct
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Only one of the Statements 2 and 3 is correct and that explains Statement 1]
Notes:The correct answer is
[C] Only one of the Statements 2 and 3 is correct and that explains Statement 1. This question evaluates India’s stance at COP28 and the specific constraints of the healthcare sector in developing nations.
- Statement 1 (Correct): At the COP28 summit held in Dubai (2023), India was among the few major economies that did not sign the “COP28 UAE Declaration on Climate and Health.” While India supports the general link between climate and health, it opted out of this specific voluntary commitment.
- Statement 2 (Incorrect): The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a non-binding, voluntary political declaration. It does not carry the weight of a legal mandate or treaty. However, India’s concern was that the language regarding “reducing emissions” (decarbonization) in the health sector could eventually lead to mandatory cooling requirements or restricted use of certain medical gases.
- Statement 3 (Correct): This reflects India’s official reasoning. In a developing country, the priority is universal health coverage and providing emergency services to a massive population. Decarbonizing the health sector—which relies heavily on energy-intensive cold chains for vaccines, 24/7 air conditioning for OTs, and specific anesthetic gases—could compromise the resilience and accessibility of healthcare if low-carbon alternatives are not yet affordable or available.
Explanation of the Link:
Statement 3 directly explains Statement 1. India’s refusal to sign was primarily driven by the fear that focusing on aggressive carbon reduction in hospitals (decarbonization) would divert resources from expanding basic healthcare access and undermine the system’s ability to handle climate-induced health crises. Since Statement 2 is factually incorrect (the declaration is non-binding), it cannot be a valid explanation for Statement 1.
2. Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization:
- It is one of the agencies of the United Nations.
- World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis.
- The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2024)
[A] 2 only
[B] 3 only
[C] 1 and 2
[D] 2 and 3
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [2 only]
Notes:The correct answer is
[A] 2 only. The World Toilet Organization (WTO) is a global non-profit committed to improving sanitation and toilet conditions worldwide.
- Statement 1 is Incorrect: The World Toilet Organization is a non-governmental organization (NGO) founded by Jack Sim in Singapore in 2001. It is not an agency of the United Nations. It should not be confused with the “World Trade Organization” or UN-Water.
- Statement 2 is Correct: The WTO established the World Toilet Summit in 2001, followed by World Toilet Day (November 19th) and the World Toilet College (started in 2005). Notably, it was the WTO’s advocacy that led the UN General Assembly to officially recognize World Toilet Day as an international UN day in 2013.
- Statement 3 is Incorrect: The WTO functions as a global advocate and knowledge-sharing platform rather than a primary funding or grant-making body. Its focus is on social entrepreneurship, advocacy, policy influence, and capacity building (through the World Toilet College) to address the sanitation crisis, rather than providing direct financial grants to nations.
While the UN now officially observes World Toilet Day, the organization itself remains an independent NGO headquartered in Singapore.
3. Consider the following statements:
- Statement-I: According to the United Nations’ World Water Development Report, 2022, India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year.
- Statement-II: India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost half of the world’s population living in its territory.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (UPSC Prelims 2023)
[A] Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct and Statement-2 is the correct explanation for Statement-1
[B] Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct and Statement-2 is not the correct explanation for Statement-1
[C] Statement-1 is correct but Statement-2 is incorrect
[D] Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-2 is correct
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Statement-1 is correct but Statement-2 is incorrect]
Notes:The correct answer is
[C] Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. This question evaluates global water extraction statistics and India’s demographic share.
- Statement-I (Correct): According to the UN World Water Development Report, India is the largest user of groundwater in the world. It extracts approximately 251 cubic kilometers (km^3) of groundwater annually, which accounts for more than one-fourth (about 26%) of the global groundwater withdrawal.
- Statement-II (Incorrect): While India is the largest extractor of groundwater, the reason provided is factually wrong. India is home to approximately 17-18% of the world’s population, not “almost half.” Furthermore, the primary driver for groundwater extraction in India is irrigation (accounting for nearly 90% of extraction), rather than just drinking water and sanitation.
The high dependency on groundwater in India has led to significant over-exploitation, particularly in the northwest and south, prompting the government to launch initiatives like the Atal Bhujal Yojana and the Jal Shakti Abhiyan to improve water table levels through community-led management.
4. Consider the following statements:
- Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the ‘Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)’.
- The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries.
- The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments.
How many of the above statements are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2023)
[A] Only one
[B] Only two
[C] All three
[D] None
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [None]
Notes:The correct answer is
[D] None. This question tests your precision regarding international agreements and the specific mandates of global frameworks.
- Statement 1 (Incorrect): While the Global Compact for Migration (GCM) was adopted by a vast majority of UN member states in December 2018 (164 countries initially), it was not adopted by all countries. Notably, the United States, Hungary, Israel, and several others opted out or voted against its adoption, citing concerns over national sovereignty.
- Statement 2 (Incorrect): The GCM is explicitly a non-legally binding cooperative framework. It recognizes that every state has the sovereign right to determine its own national migration policy. It provides a menu of 23 objectives and best practices but does not impose legal obligations or enforcement mechanisms on member countries.
- Statement 3 (Incorrect): The GCM specifically focuses on international migration in all its dimensions. It does not address “internal migration” or “internally displaced persons” (IDPs). Issues related to IDPs are generally covered under different frameworks, such as the Guiding Principles on Internal Displacement, as IDPs have not crossed an international border.
The GCM was the first intergovernmentally negotiated agreement, prepared under the auspices of the United Nations, to cover all dimensions of international migration in a holistic and comprehensive manner.
5. With reference to the “United Nations Credentials Committee”, consider the following statements:
- It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.
- It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year.
- It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2022)
[A] 3 only
[B] 1 and 3
[C] 2 and 3
[D] 1 and 2
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [3 only]
Notes:The correct answer is
[A] 3 only.The United Nations Credentials Committee is a functional body mandated to examine the credentials of representatives of Member States.
- Statement 1 (Incorrect): The Credentials Committee is appointed by the UN General Assembly (UNGA), not the Security Council. At the beginning of each regular session of the General Assembly, a Credentials Committee is appointed on the proposal of the President.
- Statement 2 (Incorrect): The committee does not have a fixed traditional schedule in March, June, and September. Instead, it is typically appointed at the beginning of each regular session of the General Assembly (which starts in September) and meets as required to examine the credentials of representatives.
- Statement 3 (Correct): The primary role of the committee is to examine the credentials of representatives of Member States and report to the General Assembly. This is a critical function, especially when there is a dispute over which government is the legitimate representative of a country (e.g., following a coup or civil war).
The committee consists of nine members who are appointed by the General Assembly on the proposal of the President. Its report is submitted to the plenary of the General Assembly for final approval.
6. With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements:
- The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States.
- Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.
- Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2022)
[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 2 and 3 only
[C] 1 and 3 only
[D] 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]
Notes:The correct answer is
[D] 1, 2 and 3. The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) maintains a specific framework for non-member entities to participate in its work through observer status.
- Statement 1 – Correct: The UNGA can grant observer status to non-member States. Currently, the Holy See (Vatican City) and the State of Palestine are the two non-member States with permanent observer status, allowing them to participate in sessions without the right to vote.
- Statement 2 – Correct: Inter-governmental organizations (IGOs) whose activities are of interest to the Assembly can seek observer status. Examples include the European Union, the African Union, and the International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC). This status is granted through a formal resolution.
- Statement 3 – Correct: Permanent Observers have the right to maintain permanent missions at the UN Headquarters in New York. These missions allow them access to most meetings and relevant documentation, ensuring they can follow the proceedings closely and represent their interests.
Observer status is based on practice and is not specifically provided for in the UN Charter. It is usually restricted to entities that have received a standing invitation to participate in the sessions and work of the General Assembly.
7. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements:
- A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.
- Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.
- The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2022)
[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 2 and 3 only
[C] 1 and 3 only
[D] 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]
Notes:The correct answer is
[D] 1, 2 and 3. The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), adopted in 1982, defines the rights and responsibilities of nations regarding their use of the world’s oceans.
- Statement 1 is Correct: Under UNCLOS, every state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baselines determined in accordance with the convention. The coastal state exercises full sovereignty over this belt.
- Statement 2 is Correct: Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. Passage is “innocent” as long as it is not prejudicial to the peace, good order, or security of the coastal state.
- Statement 3 is Correct: The Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) is an area beyond and adjacent to the territorial sea. It shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baselines from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. In this zone, the coastal state has sovereign rights for exploring, exploiting, conserving, and managing natural resources.
8. With reference to the New York Declaration on Forests, which of the following statements are correct?
- It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014.
- It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests.
- It is a legally binding international declaration.
- It is endorsed by governments, big companies and indigenous communities.
- India was one of the signatories at its inception.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (UPSC Prelims 2021)
[A] 1, 2 and 4
[B] 1, 3 and 5
[C] 3 and 4
[D] 2 and 5
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [1, 2 and 4]
Notes:The correct answer is
[A] 1, 2 and 4. The New York Declaration on Forests (NYDF) is a significant non-binding political declaration aimed at global forest conservation.
- Endorsement (Statement 1 – Correct): It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit held in New York in September 2014.
- Global Timeline (Statement 2 – Correct): The declaration outlines ten goals, including a target to halve the rate of loss of natural forests globally by 2020 and striving to end natural forest loss by 2030.
- Diverse Endorsers (Statement 4 – Correct): It is unique because it is endorsed by a broad coalition of over 200 entities, including national and subnational governments, some of the world’s largest companies, and influential indigenous peoples’ organizations.
- Legally Binding (Statement 3 – Incorrect): The NYDF is a voluntary, non-legally binding political declaration. It relies on the commitment and cooperation of its signatories rather than international law.
- India’s Status (Statement 5 – Incorrect): India was not a signatory to the declaration at its inception in 2014. Major forest-holding nations like Brazil and Russia also did not sign it at the start.
Significance: The NYDF was the first time that global multi-stakeholder actors agreed on a specific timeline to end deforestation. It emphasizes that reducing emissions from deforestation and increasing forest restoration are key to meeting the goals of the Paris Agreement.
9. Consider the following statements :
- The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’.
- The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
- A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
- The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2019)
[A] 1 and 3 only
[B] 2, 3 and 4 only
[C] 2 and 4 only
[D] 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [2 and 4 only]
Notes:The correct answer is
[C] 2 and 4 only. These international frameworks distinguish between corruption and organized crime through specific legal instruments managed by the UNODC.
- Statement 1 (Incorrect): The ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’ is actually a supplement to the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC), not the UNCAC.
- Statement 2 (Correct): The UNCAC is indeed the first and only legally binding universal anti-corruption instrument. It was adopted by the UN General Assembly in 2003 and covers five main areas: preventive measures, criminalization and law enforcement, international cooperation, asset recovery, and technical assistance.
- Statement 3 (Incorrect): The inclusion of a specific chapter on Asset Recovery is a highlight of the UNCAC (Chapter V), not the UNTOC. It establishes asset recovery as a “fundamental principle” of the Convention, requiring state parties to return assets in cases of embezzlement of public funds.
- Statement 4 (Correct): The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) serves as the guardian of both the UNCAC and the UNTOC. It is mandated by member states to provide technical assistance and support the implementation of these treaties.
10. Consider the following statements:
- The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World.
- Hyderabad was selected for the recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the urban forests.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (UPSC Prelims 2021)
[A] Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1
[B] Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1
[C] Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct
[D] Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct]
Notes:The correct answer is
[D] Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct. The recognition involves specific international organizations and criteria for urban forestry.
- Statement 1 (Incorrect): The Tree City of the World recognition is a program organized by the Arbor Day Foundation and the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations, not the UNCDF. In 2020, Hyderabad was indeed the only city in India to be recognized at that time (later joined by Mumbai in 2021).
- Statement 2 (Correct): Hyderabad was selected for this title due to its commitment to growing and maintaining urban forests through initiatives like “Kuitha Haram” and its adherence to the program’s five core standards: Establish Responsibility, Set the Rules, Know What You Have, Allocate Resources, and Celebrate Achievements.