Quiz 640: Indian Polity and Constitution for IAS and PCS Examinations

1.Consider the following statements:
1.The President is immune from any civil proceedings against him/her.
2.But after giving two months’ notice, criminal proceedings can be instituted againthe President.
Which of the statement(s) given above is correct regarding the immunity enjoyed by the President in respect of his/her ‘personal’ acts, during his/her tenure :
[A]Only 1
[B]Only 2
[C]Both 1 and 2
[D]Neither 1 nor 2

Option [D]
The immunity enjoyed by the President in respect of his/her personal acts, during his/her tenure is an exception to the fundamental right to equality (of treatment in similar circumstances and absence of any special privilege in favour of any individual) as mentioned in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution. The President of India is immune from any criminal proceedings against him/her. But after giving 2 months’ notice, civil proceedings can be instituted against him/her.

2.The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in the four states of :
[A]Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura and Nagaland
[B]Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
[C]Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland
[D]Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland

Option [B]
The 5th Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any state, except in the 4 states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram which has been dealt separately in 6th Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

3.Which of the following is not one of the grounds for disqualification for being elected as a Member of Parliament?
1.If the person holds an office of profit under the State Government.
2.If the person has voluntarily acquired citizenship of a foreign State.
3.If a person is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule.
4.If the person has/had been detained under the Preventive Detention Law.
Choose the correct option:
[A]Only 2
[B]Only 4
[C]1 and 4
[D]1, 2 and 4

Option [B]
Article 102: Disqualifications for being elected as an MP:
(1) A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament-
(a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder;
(b) if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court;
(c) if he is an undischarged insolvent;
(d) if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State;
(e) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament, explanation For the purposes of this clause a person shall not be deemed to hold an office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State by reason only that he is a Minister either for the Union or for such State.
(2) A person shall be disqualified for being a member of either House of Parliament if he is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule.

4.Consider the following Articles of the Constitution of India:
1. Article 72 – Pardoning power of the president
2. Article 143 – Advisory Jurisdiction of Supreme Court
3. Article 360 – Provisions relating to Financial Emergency
4. Articles (148-151) – Powers and functions of the Attorney General of India
Which among the above Articles are paired correctly with their respective provisions?
[A]1 and 3
[B]1, 2 and 3
[C]1, 2 and 4
[D]All of them

1, 2 and 3
Article (148-151) are relating to the powers and functions of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

5.Which of the following Statements is correct regarding the Election Commission of India?
[A]It is an independent and statutory body.
[B]It consists of members having a tenure of six years.
[C]It acts as a court for arbitration of disputes related to granting of recognition to political parties.
[D]Being an all-India body, it is also concerned with the elections with the elections to Gram Panchayats and State Muncipalities.

It consists of members having a tenure of 6 years.

6.Consider the following statements:
1.Parliament cannot alter the name and territory of J&K without the consent of the State legislature.
2.No proclamation of Emergency can be made by the President under Article 352 on the ground of “internal disturbance” in J&K without the concurrence of J&K Government.
3.The Union shall have the power to suspend the State Constitution on the ground of failure to comply with the directions given by the Union.
4.The Union shall have no power to make a Proclamation of Financial Emergency with respect to the State of J&K.
Which of the Statement(s) given above is correct regarding the ‘special provisions’ for the State of Jammu & Kashmir?
[A]Only 3
[B]Only 4
[C]1, 2 and 4
[D]2, 3 and 4

Option [C]
Under Part XXI of the Constitution of India, which deals with “Temporary, Transitional and Special provisions”, the State of Jammu and Kashmir has been accorded special status under Article 370. Even though included in 1st Schedule as 15th state, all the provisions of the Constitution which are applicable to other states are not applicable to J&K. Special Features-J&K is the only state in India which has a Constitution of its own. The Constitution of J&K was enacted by a separate Constituent Assembly set up by the State and it came into force on 26th January 1957.

7.The highest body below the Parliament of India which is responsible for formulating policy matters regarding planning for social and economic welfare and development of our country is:
[A]Planning Commission
[B]Finance Commission
[C]National Advisory Council
[D]National Development Council

National Development Council

8.Consider the following Indian Religious Communities:
Which among the above have been conferred the ‘minority’ status by the Government of India?
[A]1 and 4
[B]1, 2 and 4
[C]2, 3 and 4
[D]1, 2, 3 and 4

1, 2 and 4

9.Consider the following Statement(s) regarding the constitutional provisions for legal aid to the poor :
1.Article 14 makes it obligatory for the state to ensure equality before law.
2.Article 22(1) provides for a legal system which promotes justice on the basis of equal opportunity to all.
3.Article 39(A) of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to the poor and weaker sections of the society and ensures justice for all.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
[A]Only 1
[B]1 and 2
[C]1 and 3
[D]1, 2 and 3

1, 2 and 3

10.Consider the following statements:
1.The supervisory jurisdiction is exercised by the Supreme Court only and not the High Courts.
2.The Writ jurisdiction of the High Courts is wider than that of the Supreme Court.
Which of the above Statement(s) is/are correct regarding the jurisdiction exercised by the Supreme Court and the High Court of India?
[A]Only 1
[B]Only 2
[C]Both 1 and 2
[D]Neither 1 nor 2

Only 2

11.Consider the following statements regarding the Central Vigilance Commission(CVC) ?
1.The office of CVC was established by the recommendations of Santhanam Committee in 1964.
2.The CVC holds office for a tenure of four years.
3.The jurisdiction of the CVC extends to the members of All India Services and Group A officers of Central and State Governments.
4.The CVC reviews the programme of investigation conducted by the Delhi Police Special Establiment.
Which of the above Statement(s) is/are correct?
[A]Only 3
[B]1 and 3
[C]1, 2 and 3
[D]1, 2 and 4

1, 2 and 4

12.Consider the following Statements regarding the Planning Commission of India.
1.Only an advisory body and has no executive responsibilities.
2.The Planning Commission was established in 1950 by an executive resolution of the Government of India.
Which of the above Statement(s) is/are correct?
[A]Only 1
[B]Only 2
[C]Both 1 and 2
[D]Neither 1 nor 2

Both 1 and 2

13.Consider the following official languages of India:
1.Sindhi and Nepali
2.Konkani and Manipuri
3.Bodo and Santhali
4.Santhali and Konkani
5.Dogri and Maithili
Which of the above languages were added to the 8th Schedule by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003?
[A]1 and 2
[B]2 and 3
[C]3 and 5
[D]4 and 5

3 and 5

14.Consider the following statements regarding the Quorum in the houses of the Parliament of India :
1.Quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present in the house before it can transact any business.
2.It is 1/10th of the total number of members in each house excluding the presiding officer.
Which of the Statement(s) given above is/are correct?
[A]Only 1
[B]Only 2
[C]Both 1 and 2
[D]Neither 1 nor 2

Only 1
Quorum is 1/10th of the total number of members in each house including the presiding officer.

15.Consider the following statements regarding the Centre-State legislative relations:
1.Parliament alone can make extra-territorial legislations.
2.When there is a conflict over a matter between the State list and the Concurrent list, the former prevails over the latter.
3.Parliament is empowered to legislate in the State field in national interest, if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by absolute majority.
4.The power to make laws on residuary subjects vested with the Parliament.
Which of the Statement(s) given above do/does not hold good in this regard?
[A]Only 2
[B]Only 4
[C]2 and 3
[D]3 and 4

Only 2
When there is a conflict over a matter between the State list and the Concurrent list, the latter prevails over the former. (Hence Statement 2. is incorrect)

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    Q 15 ‘not by ABSOLUTE MAJORITY But BY 2/3rd PRESENT AND VOTING’ (Article 249)