Analysis of UPSC Civil Services 2010 (GS Paper) : Part -1

UPSC is always unpredictable. It has once again dumped all the textbooks / coaching notes and and relied on awareness & analytical skills of the candidates rather than sticking to rote learning and memory based learning systems. The exam which you appeared on May 23, 2010 gives an indirect indication –how the CSAT 2011 is likely to be and what UPSC would be actually looking for in candidates. The question paper was tough. Wasn’t it?
Yes, it was. The questions were complex, required a lot of mental exercise. You must have downloaded the question papers with various answer keys from other sites. For me this is a time to think and analyze my work of last 15 months and orient my working strategy for the time to come. Here is 1st part of this series.
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1. A geographic area with an altitude of 400 meters has following characteristics:

If this geographic area were to have a natural forest, which one of the following would it most likely be ?
(a) Moist temperate coniferous forest
(b) Montane subtropical forest
(c) Temperate forest
(d) Tropical rain forest
Answer: Tropical Rain Forests
Explanation:
The Tropical Rain forests have an annual rainfall of 1,750 millimetres to 2,000 millimetres. In the given question it comes out to be 1734 mm. The mean monthly temperatures of tropical rains forests is somewhere above Mean monthly 18 °C.
In Moist temperate coniferous forest the annual precipitation is less that 1000 mm. The altidude of Montane subtropical forest varies from 500 m to 4000 m above sea level. For temperate forests the moderate annual average temperature is normally from 3 to 15.6 °C.

2. If a potato is placed on a pure paper plate which is white and unprinted and put in a microwave oven, the potato heats up but the paper plate does not. This is because:
(a) Potato is mainly made up of starch whereas paper is mainly made up of cellulose
(b) Potato transmits microwaves whereas paper reflects microwaves
(c) Potato contains water whereas paper does not contain water
(d) Potato is a fresh organic material whereas’ paper is a dead organic material

Correct Answer: Potato contains water whereas paper does not contain water

A microwave oven works on the principle of diaelectric heating, the process in which radiowave or microwave electromagnetic radiation heats a dielectric material. This heating is caused by dipole rotation. The water molecules are electric dipoles, and they have a positive charge at one end and a negative charge at the other, and therefore rotate as they try to align themselves with the alternating electric field of the microwaves. This molecular movement represents heat which is then dispersed as the rotating molecules hit other molecules and put them into motion. The microwaves readily pass through many materials, such as glass, most plastics, paper and china, with little or no effect. Generally, these materials make excellent utensils for cooking in a microwave oven. some other materials, such as metal and foil, tend to reflect microwave energy.

3. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following:
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India ?
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer is B : Directive Principles of State Policy
Please read this post on Gktoday Published on May 28, 2009

4. A new type of El Nino called El Nino Modoki appeared in the news. In this context, consider the following statements:
1. Normal El Nino forms in the Central Pacific ocean whereas El-Nino Modoki forms in Eastern Pacific ocean.
2. Normal EI Nino results in diminished hurricanes in the Atlantic ocean but El Nino Modoki results in a greater number of hurricanes with greater frequency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither .1 nor 2

Correct Answer: 2 only . UPSC has intentionally reverse the order in first question. Please go through last para of this post. It is my request. Click Here

5. Mon 863 is a variety of maize. It was in the news for the following reason
(a) It is a genetically modified dwarf variety which is resistant to drought
(b) It is a genetically modified variety which is pest resistant
(c) It is a genetically modified variety with ten times higher protein content than regular maize crop
(d) It is a genetically modified variety used exclusively for bio-fuel production

Correct Answer: B
MON863 is a genetically engineered (GE) insect resistant maize (corn) that expresses a Bt-toxin (Cry3Bb1). This toxin, which stems from a micro-organism (Bacillus thuringiensis), is meant to protect the maize against the corn rootworm pest. This GE maize is different from other GE maize plants (Mon 810, Bt11, Bt 176) already placed on the market, as they produce another toxin (Cry1Ab), which is toxic to the European corn borer. Further, GE maize MON863 contains an antibiotic resistance marker gene (ntpII conferring resistance to kanamycin).

Please refer to Quiz 341 Q. 16 & 17. I missed the depth of UPSC, but yes, I reached there.

8. Genetically modified “golden rice” has been engineered to meet human nutritional requirements. Which one of the following statements best qualifies golden rice ?
(a) The grains have been fortified with genes to provide three times higher grain yield per acre than other high yielding varieties
(b) Its grains contain pro-vitamin A which upon ingestion is converted to vitamin A in the human body
(c) Its modified genes cause the synthesis of all the nine essential amino acids
(d) Its modified genes cause the fortification of its grains with vitamin D.

Correct Answer: B please refer to Quiz 90 Question 9
9. In a tournament 14 teams play league matches. If each team plays against every other team once only then how many matches are played ?
(a) 105
(b) 91
(c) 85
(d) 78
Correct Answer: B

10. Consider the following statements :
The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact
1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).
2. if he seeks such an advice.
3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3
(d) 1 and 2
Correct Answer is B and it is an obvious answer.
11. Chlorination is a process used for water-purification. The disinfecting action of chlorine is mainly due to
(a) The formation of hydrochloric acid when chlorine is added to, water
(b) The formation of hypochlorous acid when chlorine is added to water
(c) The formation of nascent oxygen when chlorine is added to water
(d) The formation of hydrogen when chlorine is added to wate
The first 2 options have been used by UPSC to confuse you, because the reaction is as follows:
Cl2 + H2O <--> HOCl + HCl
So both hydrochloric acid & hypochlorous acid are formed. the question asks about “disinfecting action”. Here HOCl is a weak acid which dissociates as follows:
Hypochlorous Acid ? Hydrogen Ion + Hypochlorite Ion
HOCl <---> H+ + OCl-
The HOCL in undissociated form is 20 to 50 times more effective for killing than is its ion OCl¯ . The dissociation depends upon Ph of water. The free available chlorine for disinfection is both the HOCl and OCl- together. Chlorine, being a very reactive element, will oxidize organic and inorganic matter alike when added to water. On this principle, the Sodium Hypochlorite and Calcium Hypochlorite are used and Hypochlorites and bleaches work in the same general manner as chlorine gas. They react with water and form the disinfectant hypochlorous acid.
Correct Answer: B
12. With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigative stage and not those matters pending before any court
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature
(c) Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other person
(d) None of the statements given above is correct
Correct Answer: None of the above statements is correct

14. Though coffee and. tea both are cultivated on hill slopes, there is some difference between them regarding their cultivation. In this context, consider the following statements:
1. Coffee plant requires a hot and humid climate of tropical areas whereas tea can be cultivated in both tropical and subtropical areas.
2. Coffee, is propagated by seeds but tea is propagated by stem cuttings only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

The second statement is incorrect. Coffee is generally propagated by seeds yet budding, grafting, and cuttings have been used for proagation of coffee. Tea is grown in in tropical and sub-tropical climates, Coffee is able to tolerate Warm Temperate Dry to Rain (with little or no frost) through Tropical Very Dry to Wet Forest.
Correct Answer: Statement 1 is correct only

15.In the context of the affairs of which of the following is the phrase “Special Safeguard Mechanisms” mentioned in the news frequently ?
(a) United Nations Environment Programme
(b) World Trade Organisation
(c) ASEAN-India Free Trade Agreement
(d) G-20 Summits

Correct answer: World Trade Organisation
Kindly read this article which deals with Doha Round and Special Safeguard mechanism

16.Which of the following terms indicates a mechanism used by commercial banks for providing credit to the government ?
(a) Cash Credit Ratio
(b) Debt Service Obligation
(c) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
(d) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
Correct Answer: SLR
Commercial banks provide long-term credit to government by investing their funds in government securities and short-term finance by purchasing Treasury Bills. This comes under SLR.

17.In order to comply with TRIPS Agreement, India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999. The difference/differences between a “Trade Mark” and a Geographical Indication is/are:
1. A Trade Mark is an individual or a company’s right whereas a Geographical Indication is a community’s right.
2. A Trade Mark can be licensed whereas a Geographical Indication cannot be licensed.
3. A Trade Mark is assigned to the manufactured goods whereas the Geographical Indication is assigned to the agricultural goods/products and handicrafts only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

A GI is an indication which shows that a particular agricultural, natural or manufactured good (statement 3 is incorrect) originates from a definite geographical territory. The main aim of GI tag is to promote economic prosperity of producers of goods produced in a geographical territory, so statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is also correct because, a trade mark is a sign which is used in the course of trade and it distinguishes goods or services of one enterprise from those of other enterprises. Whereas a geographical indication is an indication used to identify goods having special characteristics originating from a definite geographical territory. The GI is not licensed but has to be registered with Registrar of Geographical Indications.

Correct Answer: B

18. The SEZ Act, 2005 which came into effect in February 2006 has certain objectives. In this context, consider the following :
1. Development of infrastructure facilities.
2. Promotion of investment from foreign sources.
3. Promotion of exports of services only.
Which of the above are the objectives of this Act ?
(a) 1 and 2 only. (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

Correct Answer: Statement 3 is incorrect so Option A is correct
The main objectives of the SEZ Act are:
(a) generation of additional economic activity
(b) promotion of exports of goods and services;
(c) promotion of investment from domestic and foreign sources;
(d) creation of employment opportunities;
(e) development of infrastructure facilities;

19. Which one of the following statements is an appropriate description of deflation ?
(a) It is a sudden fall in the value of a currency against other currencies
(b) It is a persistent recession in both the financial and real sectors of economy
(c) It is a persistent fall in the general price level of goods and services
(d) It is a fall in the rate of inflation over a period of time
Correct Answer: C is the correct answer. D is not correct, because fall in the rate of inflation over a period of time is disinflation. Inflation must be negative for deflation.

20. Consider the following statements :
1. Biodiversity hotspots are located only in tropical regions.
2. India has four biodiversity hotspots i.e., Eastern Himalayas, Western Himalayas, Western Ghats and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Correct Answer: Both the statements are incorrect.
Statement 2 is incorrect because out of 34 Biodiversity Hotspots India is home to 3 viz. 1. Eastern Himalaya 2. Indo-Burma (Andaman & Nicobar and also Meghalaya subtropical forests) and 3 Western Ghats. There is no Biodiversity Hotspot named as Western Himalaya. Statement 1 is also incorrect.
Please refer to my Master Test Series Q. 76
next tommorow :)

21.Widespread resistance of malarial parasite to drugs like chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria. Why is it difficult to develop an effective malaria vaccine ?
(a) Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium
(b) Man does not develop, immunity to malaria during natural infection
(c) Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria
(d) Man is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host

For most infectious diseases for which effective vaccines are available , a single infection confers long standing protective immunity. A person who had measles does not develop measles again. This type of sterile protective immunity does not exist for malaria. So man lacks naturally acquired protective immunity against the plasmodium or other malarial parasites. Plasmodium has its own ingenious way of avoiding hosts’ immune response and that is why it has been very difficult. RTS,S is one of the malarial vaccine candidates.

Correct answer: B

22. Consider the following statements:
1. The boundaries of a National Park are defined by legislation.
2. A Biosphere Reserve is declared to conserve a few specific species of flora and fauna.
3. In a Wildlife Sanctuary, limited ‘ biotic interference is permitted.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Lets discuss this tricky question:
Statement 2 is correct: A biosphere reserve is a unique concept, which includes one, or more protected areas and surrounding lands that are managed to combine both conservation and sustainable use of natural resources. In India 13 states in have Biosphere Reserves and the funds allocated to them is utilized to monitor and promote bio-diversity conservation through surveys and assessment of flora and fauna. Basically Biosphere reserves are to protect larger areas of natural habitat, and often include one or more national parks and/or preserves, along buffer zones that are open to some economic uses as per the IUCN Category V.

Statement 3 is correct:
The difference between a national park and a sanctuary is that no human activity is allowed inside a national park, while limited activities are permitted within the sanctuary.

Now lets discuss statement 1:
please refer to The Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, amended 1993, CHAPTER IV, 35.

Declaration of National Parks. Ref
1. Whenever it appears to the State Government that an area, whether within a sanctuary or not, is, by reason of its ecological, faunal, floral, geomorphological, or zoological association or importance, needed to be constituted as a National Park for the purpose of protecting& propagating or developing wildlife therein or its environment, it may, by notification, declare its intention to constitute such area as a National Park.

3. Where any area is intended to be declared as a National Park, the provisions of Sec. [1219 to 26-A (both inclusive except clause (c) of sub-section (2) of section 24)] shall, as far as may be, apply to the investigation and determination of claims and extinguishment of rights, in relation to any land in such area as they apply to the said matters in relation to any land in a sanctuary.

4. When the following events have occurred, namely

(a) the period for preferring claims has elapsed, and all claims, if any, made in relation to any land in an area intended to be declared as a National Park, have been disposed of by the State Government, and

(b) all rights in respect of lands proposed to be included in the National Park have become vested in the State Government the State Government shall publish a notification specifying the limits of the area which shall be comprised within the National Park and declare that the said area shall be a National Park on and from such date as may be specified in the notification.

5. No alteration of the boundaries of a National Park shall be made except on a resolution passed by the Legislature of the State.

The fifth para holds the first statement in the question correct
Correct answer D.
23. A pesticide which is a chlorinated hydrocarbon is sprayed on a food crop. The food chain is: Food crop – Rat -Snake – Hawk. In this food chain, the highest concentration of the pesticide would accumulate in which one of the following?
(a) Food crop
(b) Rat
(c) Snake
(d) Hawk
The examiner uses the term “chlorinated hydrocarbon” instead of a simply using DDT which is dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane, a persistent well-known synthetic pesticide with a long controversial history. The question just wants to know whether, you are aware of the concept of Bio Magnification. Bio Magnification is also known as bioamplification. Simply, it states that some pesticides are biomagnified. They reach higher and higher levels with each successive step in the food chain. Small amounts of pesticides are absorbed by the plants and they get transferred to increased concentration in fishes, birds, animals and man. Indian White-rumped Vulture (we call it a Gidhh in Rajasthan) getting disappeared due to the same phenomena.

Correct answer: D (Hawk)

24. With reference to soil conservation, consider the following practices :
1. Crop rotation
2 Sand fences
3. Terracing
4. Wind breaks
Which of the above are considered appropriate methods for soil conservation in India ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer : D all are appropriate

25.With reference to the Non-banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India, consider the following statements :
1. They cannot engage in the acquisition of securities issued by the government.
2. They cannot accept demand deposits like Savings Account.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Statement 1. A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956 and is engaged in the business of loans and advances, acquisition of shares/stock/bonds/debentures/securities issued by Government or local authority or other securities of like marketable nature, leasing, hire-purchase, insurance business, chit business but does not include any institution whose principal business is that of agriculture activity, industrial activity, sale/purchase/construction of immovable property. so statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2. an NBFC cannot accept demand deposits; statement 2 is correct.

Correct Answer B : Two only.

26. Which one of the following was not stipulated in the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 ?
(a) Elimination of revenue deficit by the end of the fiscal year 2007-08
(b) Non-borrowing by the central government from Reserve Bank of India except under certain circumstances
(c) Elimination of primary deficit by the end of the fiscal year 2008-09
(d) Fixing government guarantees in any financial year as a percentage of GDP
Please refer tThe FRBM Act 2003 ref
FRBM Act 2003:
4. (1): The central government shall take appropriate measures to reduce the fiscal deficit and revenue deficit so as to eliminate the revenue deficit by the 31st march 2008. (statement 1 stipulated)
(2): The central government shall by rules made by it specify-
(a): the annual targets for reduction of fiscal deficit and revenue deficit during the period beginning with commencement of this act and ending on March 31, 2008

2 (b) the government shall specify the annual targets of assuming contingent liabilities in the form of guarantees and the total liabilities as a percentage of GDP (statement d was stipulated)

5(1): the central government will not borrow from the RBI excpet under certain circumstances.
Here I would like to mention that as per the target, revenue deficit, which is revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts, had to be reduced to nil in five years beginning 2004-05. Each year, the government was required to reduce the revenue deficit by 0.5% of the GDP. The fiscal deficit was required to be reduced to 3% of the GDP by 2008-09. It would mean reduction of fiscal deficit by 0.3 % of GDP every year. Under the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, the Centre should have eliminated the revenue deficit and brought down the fiscal deficit to 3 per cent of gross domestic product by March 2008. This target was extended by a year. Then, due to the global economic crisis, the government decided to suspend implementation of the FRBMA. Please read in this post para 6 titled Fiscal Deficit Problems

Correct Answer: C there was no stipulation of primary deficit to be brought to zero in the act.

27. Two trains leave New Delhi at the same time. One travels north at 60 kmph and the other travels south at 40 kmph. After how many hours will the trains be 150 km apart ?
(a) 3/2 (b) 4/3 (c) ¾ (d) 15/2

Correct Answer A

28. A question paper had ten questions. Each question could only be answered as True (T) or False (F). Each candidate answered all the questions. Yet, no two candidates wrote the answers in an identical sequence. How many different sequences of answers are possible?
(a) 20 (b) 40 (c) 512 (d) 1024

Correct Answer: D

29. In the parlance of financial investments, the term ‘bear’ denotes
(a) An investor who feels that the price of a particular security is going to fall
(b) An investor who expects the price of particular shares to rise
(c) A shareholder or a bondholder who has’ an interest in a company, financial or otherwise
(d) Any lender, whether by making a loan or buying a bond

Correct Answer : A, You must know about bull & bear.

30. A great deal of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) to India comes from Mauritius than from many major and mature economies like UK and France. Why?
(a) India has preference, for certain countries as regards receiving FDI
(b) India has double taxation avoidance agreement with Mauritius
(c) Most citizens of Mauritius have ethnic identity with India and so they feel secure to invest in India
(d) Impending dangers of global climatic change prompt Mauritius to make huge investments in India

Correct Answer B

31. Six books A, B, C, D, E and F are placed side by side. B, C and E have blue cover and the other books have red cover. Only D and F are new books and the rest are old. A, C and D are law reports and others are Gazetteers. What book is a new law report with a red colour ?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

Correct Answer D

32. Following are the characteristics of an area in India:
1. Hot and humid climate
2. Annual rainfall 200 cm
3. Hill slopes up to an altitude of 1100 metres
4. Annual range of temperature 15°C to 30°C
Which one among the following crops are you most likely to find in the area described above ?
(a) Mustard (b) Cotton (c) Pepper (d) Virginia tobacco

The above climate conditions are found in India in Western coastal area from Maharastra, Goa, Kerala, Coastal Karnataka including the Western Ghats, and hilly area of north east except some parts of Meghalaya and Arunachal Pradesh. Virginia tobacco is cultivated in Andhra Pradesh and can be grown in dry weather. So Pepper should be the correct option.

Correct answer C pepper.
33. Running at a speed of 60 km per hour, a train passed through a 1-5 km long tunnel in two minutes. What is the length of the train ?
(a) 250 m
(b) 500 m
(c) 1000 m
(d) 1500 m

Correct Answer : B
34. India-based Neutrino Observatory is included by the Planning Commission as a mega science project under the 11th five-Year Plan. In this context, consider the following statements:
1. Neutrinos are chargeless elementary particles that travel close to the speed of light.
2. Neutrinos are created in nuclear reactions of beta decay.
3. Neutrinos have a negligible, but nonzero mass.
4. Trillions of Neutrinos pass through human body every second.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: All statements are correct.
The neutrino observatory was amid controversy recently. it is country’s biggest physics projects. The proposed site in Tamil nadu was recently rejected by the Government due to the proximity of the lab near a wild life sanctuary. please refer Megaquiz December Q. 10

35. The “Instrument of Instructions” contained in the Government of India Act 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Extent of executive power of State
(d) Conduct of business of the Government of India

Instruments of instructions were issued by British Government under the 1935 Act under the Draft Constitution.
Correct Answer B

36. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles produce one of the following as “exhaust”
(a) NH3 (b) CH4 (c) H2O (d) H2O2
One of the few questions which did not confuse the candidates. C is the correct answer.

37. Recently, LASIK (Laser Assisted In Situ Keratomileusis) procedure is being made popular for vision correction. Which one of the following statements in this context is not correct ?
(a) LASIK procedure is used to correct refractive errors of the eye
(b) It is a procedure that permanently changes the shapes of the cornea
(c) It reduces a person’s dependence on glasses or contact lenses
(d) It is a procedure that can be done on the person of any age

The first 3 options are correct. LASIK involves cutting of the cornea and B is a correct statement. D is an incorrect statement. The FDA stipulates the correct minimum age 18 years for most situations.

38. Consider the following:
1. Oxides of Hydrogen
2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur
Which of the above causes/cause acid rain ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Again this is a tricky question. Oxide of Hydrogen is water and Hydrogen Oxide is the simple and systematic name of water. The acid rain is basically a result of reactions of Oxides of Hydrogen, Nitrogen and Sulphur.
The Acid rain is acid rain because of the presence of Nitric acid and Sulphuric Acid.
Water Reacts with CO2 in the atmosphere to form carbonic acid (the one which we enjoy in Cola drinks) . It is a weak acid and partially gets dissociated in the following Ions.
CO2 + H2O <----> H2CO3 <-----> H+ + HCO3-

Oxide of Nitrogen that is Nitric Oxide reacts with oxide of Hydrogen that is water to give rise to Nitric acid as follows:
2NO2 + H2O —-> HNO2 + HNO3

Oxide of sulphur reacts with oxide of Hydrogen (water) to form H2SO3 known as a unstable sulphurous acid.
SO2 + H2O <-----> H2SO3

The Oxide of Sulphur reacts with atmospheric Oxygen to also create sulphur trioxide (SO3) which is again unstable.
2SO2 + O2 —–> 2SO3

This unstable Sulphur Trioxide reacts with Oxide of water to get Sulphuric acid.

SO3 + H2O —–> H2SO4

This means acid rain is a result of reactions of oxides of Hydrogen. Nitrogen and Sulphur.
Correct Answer: D (all 1, 2,3 )

39. Six persons M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting in two rows, three in each. Q is not at the end of any row. P is second to the left of R, O is the neighbour of Q and is sitting diagonally opposite to P. N is the neighbour of R. On the basis of above information, who is facing N ?
(a) R
(b) Q
(c) P
(d) M
Correct Answer B

40. A person X has four notes of Rupee 1, 2, 5 and 10 denomination. The number of different sums of money she can form from them is
(a) 16
(b) 15
(c) 12
(d) 8
Correct Answer B

Tags: ,

Comments

  • maheshgovianu
    Reply

    thank u sir gr8 work

  • Mav
    Reply

    Salute to the UPSC question paper setters!!
    Wish we could bestow,
    BHARAT RATNA for the faceless genius nymphs :)

    I did 70 in GS aftr negative marking but dunno if its enough for psychology optional:)

  • Anonymous
    Reply

    thanks a lot for detailed solution.Great efforts.
    kindly provide us answers for SSC (graduate level exam)also, held on 16/05/10. Plz post some more questions on socio-economic topic for coming BOB exam. thx

  • DIVYA
    Reply

    Great Effort.I appreciate u giving substantiations to ur answer.. HIGHLY COMMENDABLE… But i would also appreciate if could increase the no of questions for which u r giving answers each day..

    Thank u very much

  • Shonit
    Reply

    No doubt the questions were tricky and very lengthy considering a time slot of 2 hours. It is definitely a welcome move that a major shift from "rote learning" and "cramming" has been made. But the quantum of questions from agriculture/botany and other science discipline were so high that it virtually looked like a PMT/IIT-JEE paper. The absence of questions from traditional and core subjects such as polity, current affairs (awards, events, places,IR, sports, personalities) and a marked decline in questions from history and polity/constitution is very conspicuous. More so, it is very unfair for candidates who come from non-science/technical background. The labour, dedication and time invested by candidates from such disciplines for the last one and half year has been brutally betrayed.

    I am not against this pattern, but the questions show a clear tilt towards science/technical disciplines. The bias towards humanities and liberal arts/culture is quite evident.

    By confining the questions to technical field, there will only be a further increase in the number of doctors/engineers in the final merit list. These people anyways ruin a seat in their respective institutions (AIIMS, IIT and others) and further they spoil the prospects of candidates from arts background. And now by scrapping optionals and introducing CSAT, the non-science/technical candidates will stand to lose the most. Infact, if the affinity towards technical questions keep on rising, i am afraid that the UPSC would soon become EDPSC (Engineers and Doctors public service commission).

    By bringing such a drastic overhaul, the UPSC is definitely going to make the CSE an elite affair similiar to IIMs and IITs which would be out of reach of a common man. Atleast in the old pattern, a rickshaw puller/beedi maker's son could aspire to rise to the highest echelons of the nation but now they cannot even think of preparing for it.

    UPSC is adopting an exclusivist approach by abandoning the populist method (which is the guiding maxim of our constitution and government). This does not bode well for the administrative framework in the long run. The preliminary phase should remain broadbased in order to make it accessible to the majority of the population.

  • Deepak
    Reply

    sir…based on your experience, what could be the cut-off for GS this year???

  • Anonymous
    Reply

    thnk you sir…hope to get the whole solution soon…

  • Ray
    Reply

    thanks..wat do u think shall be the cut off for a ppr like this…

    can v also have the ans for history optionals

  • Anonymous
    Reply

    Thank you for your efforts. Waiting for the rest of the questions' answers.

  • akshay
    Reply

    Thank you so much for your great effort

  • Anonymous
    Reply

    I strongly agree by the point of view of Shonit. UPSC paper should me more general in nature rather than science oriented. Whats the use of science knowledge in day-to-day working of an government official??????

    Regards,
    Ankur

  • Anonymous
    Reply

    How does chlorine disinfection work?

    Chlorine kills pathogens such as bacteria and viruses by breaking the chemical bonds in their molecules. Disinfectants that are used for this purpose consist of chlorine compounds which can exchange atoms with other compounds, such as enzymes in bacteria and other cells. When enzymes come in contact with chlorine, one or more of the hydrogen atoms in the molecule are replaced by chlorine. This causes the entire molecule to change shape or fall apart. When enzymes do not function properly, a cell or bacterium will die.

    When chlorine is added to water, underchloric acids form:
    Cl2 + H2O -> HOCl + H+ + Cl-

    Depending on the pH value, underchloric acid partly expires to hypochlorite ions:
    Cl2 + 2H2O -> HOCl + H3O + Cl-
    HOCl + H2O -> H3O+ + OCl-

    This falls apart to chlorine and oxygen atoms:
    OCl- -> Cl- + O

    Underchloric acid (HOCl, which is electrically neutral) and hypochlorite ions (OCl-, electrically negative) will form free chlorine when bound together. This results in disinfection. Both substances have very distinctive behaviour. Underchloric acid is more reactive and is a stronger disinfectant than hypochlorite. Underchloric acid is split into hydrochloric acid (HCl) and atomair oxygen (O). The oxygen atom is a powerful disinfectant.
    The disinfecting properties of chlorine in water are based on the oxidising power of the free oxygen atoms and on chlorine substitution reactions.

  • Anonymous
    Reply

    Inititally there were Only two hotspots from India 1. Indo Burma ( Andaman, Eastern Himalayas) 2. Western Ghats. ( out of 18 total)
    But after addition ( 34 in world total) and addition of Himalays in these it rose to 3.
    So Option 2 is also correct.

    Please refer following links:

    It mentions Himalaya as a Hot spot region.
    http://www.biodiversityhotspots.org/xp/hotspots/himalaya/Pages/default.aspx

    You can also refer to following link:
    http://www.kerenvis.nic.in/isbeid/biodiversity.htm

  • Anonymous
    Reply

    @Shonit

    "UPSC is definitely going to make the CSE an elite affair similiar to IIMs and IITs which would be out of reach of a common man. Atleast in the old pattern, a rickshaw puller/beedi maker's son could aspire to rise to the highest echelons of the nation but now they cannot even think of preparing for it."

    Don't get frustated, many students in above mentioned institute are from lower – medium income group. They study with scholarships and with bank loan assistantship. You smell like leftist, "Out of reach goal does not mean that it is for richer class."

    Reducing coaching dependence will reduce cost associated with preparation and will help weaker class.

    New pattern will not check how green you are (i mean green like parrot),but will check how fast you can take decisions. I think a psychological test is fair and if doctors, engineers , CA or any person with some amount of common sense can pass this test they deserve it.

  • Anonymous
    Reply

    @ Shonit

    People from lower and medium class only, go to science streams, now-a-days. Upper class guys take business/commerce streams and think for MBAs etc. This is the scene there in my vicinity, atleast.

    And by the way, there were no questions which only engineers or doctors could solve.

  • Twinkle
    Reply

    Dear Sir,
    Until now, I did not come across any website which discussed the PT ques in such a detailed manner. I would like to thank God that I could come across your analysis.
    Thanks…

  • Anonymous
    Reply

    what would be cut off for cse(p) 2010

  • Anonymous
    Reply

    sir,
    i want to know about csat 2011.how that two papers will be.there is no general studies paper.then how to prepare for it…?what to study.?

  • Anonymous
    Reply

    whatever UPSC HAS TRIED TO do in GS is not in the right directin.no history no polity no geography. everything application based keep things simple and inspite of everything the same set of students will definitely qualify. The objective should be noble rather than a weired objective that the questions which are being framed cannot be found in coaching classes notes. Its a stupid simplification of a rather magnificent process of trying to find ias wannables

  • Anonymous
    Reply

    This was the most maddening paper that UPSC should have set. What is the point of giving the syllabus and not sticking to it. Where were the questions on Constitution, Polity, History and so on? A civil servant requires knowledge of all the above mentioned areas rather than answering quetions on Hawks. Any one calling it a good or excellent paper has gone nuts. I think the commission needs to look at the paper. If paper setter could not adhere to the syllabus, the Commission needs to take avery serious note of it.

  • VIVEK KUMAR
    Reply

    great analysis

  • Jude
    Reply

    oh dear God … wat a paper ….. UPSC … jus want to attack the coaching centers …. its was a crazy question paper … after writing history I was on 9th sky….sure to clear this time ….. but GS … broke my heart …. oh God…there was not a single question ….. that is similar to last 15yrs …. it really broke my heart …. jus wait n see the mains score it will not even cross 1200 this time … coz the guys who felt tat they are sure to clear this time will be out …. jus coz of GS ….
    its very easy to set a hard paper …. it does not require grt brains ….. but they must stick to …. syllabus …. worst ever …broke my heart … oh dear Lord … kiran jude

  • Anonymous
    Reply

    i agree wid almost every one above! even i was so excited after my optional where i got 90 correct but GS…:( i didnt even dare to cross check my score there.. lets wait n watch.. UPSC only knows what they want its foolish to even imagine.. but can anyone predict the cut off??

  • Anonymous
    Reply

    Iam surprised to see so many critics for the CSE 2010 prelims. Those who say there were out of syllabus questions should read the syllabus once more. General science is also a part of the syllabus and the questions asked could be attempted with a fair degree of success if one has made a serious study of higher secondary science and geography. Each year there may be some fluctuations in the question pattern as well as the areas covered. Otherwise it would become quite easy for those who like to mug up the coaching centre notes and reproduce it in the exam. Those behind this paper should be congratulated for a brilliant effort to give edge for critical thinking over mere cramming up. And I would also like to remind that engineers and doctors study entirely different topics and there is very little in common for both.
    Suraj

  • Anonymous
    Reply

    wow, wat an analysis of the GS paper ( both by the admin of this site and the visitors). I think the UPSC has given a perfect set of questions this time and I rightly feel a guy scoring above 100 in this paper should be in the civil service considering its difficulty. Watever shonit mentioned above was quite true that this paper helped students of science field. I completed my Electrical engineering graduation from IIT (chennai) this year and simultaneously took up the UPSC CSE. I have heard many of em saying the CSE paper would be very difficult and cracking it would be near impossible without 2 years of solid prepration. nevertheless i gave it a shot and i prepared for the prelims in those areas i am quite weak like geography, economics. but guess wat, i found the paper a bit easy ( baring the humanities of course) and as far as my analysis of my paper goes i have scored 98 in GS and many of them r telling i am through to mains as my other optional score(electrical engineering) however is 89. By this paper i am unsure who got disappointed, but 1 think is for sure, it made my mood go upbeat! Cheers to the upsc and all their " brains behind the paper " !!!

  • Anonymous
    Reply

    Sir send your Mail-ID

  • Nakul
    Reply

    great work sir

  • Anonymous
    Reply

    thank you for ur efforts and waiting for more……..

  • Ghanshyam
    Reply

    Thank you sir….

  • raj4440
    Reply

    here in UPSC section,there is only 40 question of UPSC pre exam 2010 is added,but 150 question were asked in 2010..
    where is the rest questions & ur analysis.
    i found it extreme well.thnx 4 this

  • Namita
    Reply

    IAS prepration help