1. What is the primary objective of Project Sa-Mudra launched by Reserve Bank of India under ‘Utkarsh 2029’?
[A] To promote digital lending platforms for rural credit
[B] To regulate cryptocurrency transactions in India
[C] To modernise currency management and banknote logistics
[D] To increase foreign exchange reserves
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [To modernise currency management and banknote logistics]
Notes:
Reserve Bank of India under its strategy ‘Utkarsh 2029’ (2026–2029 framework for financial sector reforms) plans to advance Project Sa-Mudra (currency management modernisation initiative). It aims to expand CBDC (Central Bank Digital Currency: digital form of sovereign currency) for efficient cross-border payments. The framework rests on six pillars: robust regulations, inclusive finance, competitive markets, effective technology, future-ready organisation, and Global India. RBI will scale up ULI (Unified Lending Interface: digital platform for seamless credit access) to improve credit delivery to underserved sectors.
2. Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?
- Buying and selling Government bonds
- Buying and selling foreign currency
- Pension fund management
- Lending to private companies
- Printing and distributing currency notes
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (UPSC Prelims 2025)
[A] I and II only
[B] II, III and IV
[C] I, III, IV and V
[D] I, II and V
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [I and II only]
Notes:The correct answer is
[A] I and II only. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) generates income primarily through its role as the central bank and manager of the country’s monetary policy and foreign exchange reserves.
- Buying and selling Government bonds (Statement I – Correct): This is a major source of income. Under Open Market Operations (OMO), the RBI earns interest on the government securities (G-Secs) it holds. It also gains from the appreciation in the value of these bonds.
- Buying and selling foreign currency (Statement II – Correct): The RBI manages India’s Foreign Exchange Reserves. It earns income through the deployment of these foreign assets in sovereign bonds and treasury bills of other nations, as well as through gains from foreign exchange trading.
- Pension fund management (Statement III – Incorrect): This is not a function of the RBI. In India, pension funds are regulated and managed by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) and various licensed pension fund managers.
- Lending to private companies (Statement IV – Incorrect): The RBI is a “banker to banks” and the government. It does not provide direct commercial loans or credit facilities to private companies or individuals.
- Printing and distributing currency (Statement V – Incorrect): This is an expenditure, not a source of income. While the concept of “Seigniorage” exists (the difference between the face value of money and the cost to produce it), the act of printing and distributing itself incurs significant costs for the RBI.
Other sources of RBI income include interest on loans given to commercial banks (Repo rate) and management commissions for handling government debt.
3. Consider the following statements:
- The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).
- In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2025)
[A] I only
[B] II only
[C] Both I and II
[D] Neither I nor II
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [II only]
Notes:The correct answer is
[B] II only. The Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR) is a framework designed to help stakeholders assess a company’s performance on Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) parameters.
- Statement I (Incorrect): The mandate for BRSR comes from the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), not the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). SEBI introduced BRSR in 2021, making it mandatory for the top 1,000 listed companies (by market capitalization) to file these reports starting from the financial year 2022-23. The RBI regulates banks and non-banking financial companies but does not issue sustainability reporting mandates for all listed corporate entities.
- Statement II (Correct): The BRSR is fundamentally a non-financial disclosure framework. While financial reports focus on balance sheets and profits, the BRSR requires companies to disclose data on “Triple Bottom Line” performance—People, Planet, and Profit. This includes information on carbon emissions, waste management, employee welfare, gender diversity, and ethical governance.
The BRSR replaced the earlier Business Responsibility Report (BRR) to align Indian reporting standards with global ESG benchmarks like the Global Reporting Initiative (GRI). It is divided into three sections: General Disclosures, Management and Process Disclosures, and Principle-wise Performance Disclosures.
4. Consider the following statements:
- In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India.
- In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).
- In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2024)
[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 3 only
[C] 1, 2 and 3
[D] 2 and 3 only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [1, 2 and 3]
Notes:The correct answer is
[C] 1, 2 and 3.
- Statement 1 (Correct): Traditionally, the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) was restricted to commercial banks and Primary Dealers. However, to address liquidity stress in the shadow banking sector, the RBI has periodically opened windows (such as the Special Liquidity Facility or specific repo operations) that allow NBFCs to access liquidity, either directly or indirectly through specialized schemes. In the context of recent regulatory shifts, they are considered to have access to these facilities under specific RBI frameworks.
- Statement 2 (Correct): Under the Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) route, Foreign Institutional Investors are permitted to invest in Government Securities (G-Secs) and Treasury Bills. The RBI and SEBI set specific investment limits for these entities to manage capital flows and ensure market stability.
- Statement 3 (Correct): In India, major stock exchanges like the BSE and NSE have established separate debt trading platforms. These platforms cater to both retail and institutional investors for the trading of corporate bonds, G-Secs, and municipal bonds, aiming to increase transparency and liquidity in the secondary debt market.
5. With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements :
- There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.
- For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least of the board members should be Indian nationals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2024)
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Neither 1 nor 2]
Notes:The correct answer is
[D] Neither 1 nor 2.
- Statement 1 (Incorrect): Foreign banks operating as Wholly Owned Subsidiaries (WOS) in India are subject to strict capital requirements. The RBI mandates a minimum paid-up voting equity capital of 500 crore (5 billion INR) for such subsidiaries. They must maintain this capital locally to ensure financial stability and parity with domestic banks.
- Statement 2 (Incorrect): According to the RBI guidelines for WOS of foreign banks, not less than one-third (1/3rd) of the directors should be Indian nationals. The statement claiming “at least half” (50%) is an overstatement of the actual regulatory requirement, though the board must also consist of a majority of non-executive directors.
6. Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee:
- It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy.
- It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet.
- It is insured against inflation by its very design.
- It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2024)
[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 1 and 3 only
[C] 2 and 4 only
[D] 1, 2 and 4
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 4]
Notes:The correct answer is
[D] 1, 2 and 4. This question evaluates the fundamental characteristics of the Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) or “e-Rupee” in the Indian context.
- Statement 1 is correct: The Digital Rupee is a sovereign currency issued by the RBI. It holds the same value as physical fiat currency and is part of the central bank’s monetary policy framework, allowing the RBI to monitor and regulate its circulation.
- Statement 2 is correct: Unlike private cryptocurrencies, CBDC is a direct claim on the central bank. It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet, just like physical currency notes in circulation.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The Digital Rupee is not inherently insured against inflation. It is a digital form of fiat currency; therefore, if the general price level in the economy rises, the purchasing power of the Digital Rupee decreases, exactly like physical cash. Its “design” ensures security and settlement, not price stability or inflation indexing.
- Statement 4 is correct: One of the core features of the CBDC is its seamless convertibility. It can be exchanged at par (1:1 ratio) with physical cash and commercial bank money (deposits).
Key Context: The RBI launched the Digital Rupee (e₹) in two versions: e-Rupee Wholesale (e₹-W) for interbank settlements and e-Rupee Retail (e₹-R) for use by the general public. While it is stored in a digital wallet, it does not typically earn interest, ensuring it does not compete directly with bank deposits.
7. Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of ‘sterilization’? (UPSC Prelims 2023)
[A] Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’
[B] Oversight of settlement and páyment systems
[C] Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments
[D] Regulating the functions of Nonbanking Financial Institutions
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’]
Notes:The correct answer is
[A] Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’. In the context of central banking, sterilization refers to the process by which the RBI neutralizes the impact of excessive foreign exchange inflows or outflows on the domestic money supply.
- Sterilization Mechanism (Statement A – Correct): When foreign capital (like FDI or FPI) surges into India, the RBI buys dollars to prevent the Rupee from appreciating too sharply. This injects equivalent Rupees into the system, potentially causing inflation. To “sterilize” this effect, the RBI sells government securities through Open Market Operations (OMO) to suck out the excess liquidity.
- Oversight of Systems (Statement B – Incorrect): This refers to the RBI’s role under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. It ensures the safety and efficiency of digital and physical payment infrastructures, which is a regulatory function, not a monetary one.
- Debt and Cash Management (Statement C – Incorrect): The RBI acts as a banker to the government, managing public debt and providing Ways and Means Advances (WMA) to bridge temporary mismatches in receipts and payments. This is a fiscal service.
- Regulating NBFCs (Statement D – Incorrect): This is a supervisory function aimed at maintaining financial stability and protecting depositors, unrelated to the management of liquidity or exchange rates.
Historically, the RBI has used the Market Stabilization Scheme (MSS)—a specific form of OMO—to manage large capital inflows, ensuring that external shocks do not disrupt domestic price stability.
8. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements :
- If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
- If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
- If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2022)
[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 2 and 3 only
[C] 1 and 3 only
[D] 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [2 and 3 only]
Notes:The correct answer is
[B] 2 and 3 only. These statements relate to the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) monetary policy and foreign exchange management tools.
- Statement 1 – Incorrect: When inflation is high, the RBI aims to reduce the money supply in the economy (contractionary monetary policy). Buying government securities injects liquidity into the banking system, which would worsen inflation. To control high inflation, the RBI is likely to sell government securities through Open Market Operations (OMO) to soak up excess liquidity.
- Statement 2 – Correct: If the Rupee is rapidly depreciating, it means there is an excess supply of Rupees or a shortage of Dollars. To stabilize the currency, the RBI intervenes by selling dollars from its foreign exchange reserves and buying Rupees, thereby supporting the Rupee’s value.
- Statement 3 – Correct: If interest rates in the USA or EU fall, foreign investors seek higher returns in emerging markets like India. This leads to an influx of foreign capital (Dollars). An oversupply of Dollars leads to rapid appreciation of the Rupee, which can hurt export competitiveness. To prevent excessive appreciation, the RBI is likely to buy dollars and release Rupees into the market.
9. Consider the following statements:
- In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India.
- The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
- Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2022)
[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 2 and 3 only
[C] 1 and 3 only
[D] 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [2 and 3 only]
Notes:The correct answer is
[B] 2 and 3 only. In India, the regulatory framework for financial entities is specific to the nature of their operations, and credit rating agencies (CRAs) fall under the capital markets domain.
- Statement 1 (Incorrect): Credit rating agencies in India are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), not the Reserve Bank of India. SEBI (Credit Rating Agencies) Regulations, 1999, provide the legal framework for their registration and operation.
- Statement 2 (Correct): ICRA Limited (formerly Investment Information and Credit Rating Agency of India Limited) was incorporated in 1991. It is a public limited company listed on both the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) and the National Stock Exchange (NSE). Moody’s Investors Service is its majority shareholder.
- Statement 3 (Correct): Brickwork Ratings (BWR) is a SEBI-registered Indian credit rating agency headquartered in Bengaluru. It is one of the domestic agencies recognized by the RBI for bank loan ratings under the Basel norms.
While the RBI does not regulate CRAs directly, it maintains a list of “Accredited Credit Rating Agencies” whose ratings banks are permitted to use for risk weighting purposes under capital adequacy rules. Other prominent Indian agencies include CRISIL and CARE.
10. Consider the following statements :
- The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
- Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in public interest.
- The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act.
Which of the above statements are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2021)
[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 2 and 3 only
[C] 1 and 3 only
[D] 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [1 and 3 only]
Notes:The correct answer is
[C] 1 and 3 only.
- Statement 1 (Correct): The Governor and Deputy Governors of the RBI are appointed by the Central Government. Under Section 8 of the RBI Act, 1934, the Central Government has the authority to appoint the Governor and not more than four Deputy Governors.
- Statement 2 (Incorrect): There is no provision in the Constitution of India that gives the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI. This power is actually derived from Section 7 of the RBI Act, 1934, which states that the Central Government may from time to time give such directions to the Bank as it may, after consultation with the Governor of the Bank, consider necessary in the public interest.
- Statement 3 (Correct): The RBI is a statutory body, and its powers, functions, and the authority of the Governor are derived from the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The Governor serves as the Chief Executive Officer and Chairperson of the Central Board of Directors.
While the RBI enjoys functional autonomy, Section 7 of the RBI Act remains a powerful tool for the government, though it was never formally invoked until recent years during specific liquidity and regulatory discussions.