11. Indian Government Bond Yields are influenced by which of the following?
- Actions of the United States Federal Reserve
- Actions of the Reserve Bank of India
- Inflation and short-term interest rates
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (UPSC Prelims 2021)
[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 2 only
[C] 3 only
[D] 1,2 and 3
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [1,2 and 3]
Notes:The correct answer is
[D] 1, 2 and 3. Government bond yields represent the return an investor receives on their investment in government debt, and they are highly sensitive to both domestic and global factors.
- Actions of the US Federal Reserve (Statement 1 – Correct): The US Fed is the world’s most influential central bank. When it raises interest rates, capital often flows out of emerging markets like India toward the US in search of safer, higher returns. This “capital flight” leads to a sell-off in Indian bonds, causing bond prices to fall and yields to rise.
- Actions of the RBI (Statement 2 – Correct): The RBI influences yields through monetary policy tools like the Repo Rate and Open Market Operations (OMO). If the RBI increases the Repo Rate, the cost of borrowing rises, typically leading to an increase in bond yields. Conversely, when the RBI buys bonds through OMOs, it increases liquidity and pushes yields down.
- Inflation and short-term interest rates (Statement 3 – Correct): Inflation erodes the purchasing power of future coupon payments. Therefore, if inflation is high, investors demand higher yields to compensate for the loss in value. Short-term market interest rates also serve as a benchmark; if they rise, bond yields must follow to remain competitive.
12. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
- Retail investors through demat account can invest in ‘Treasury Bills’ and ‘Government of India Debt Bonds’ in primary market.
- The Negotiated Dealing System Order Matching is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India.
- The ‘Central Depository Services Ltd.’ is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2021)
[A] 1 only
[B] 1 and 2
[C] 3 only
[D] 2 and 3
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [1 and 2]
Notes:The correct answer is
[B] 1 and 2. This question tests knowledge of the Indian financial market infrastructure and recent reforms aimed at increasing retail participation in government securities.
- Retail Participation (Statement 1 – Correct): Under the RBI Retail Direct Scheme launched in 2021, retail investors can open a “Retail Direct Gilt Account” (RDG Account) to directly invest in Treasury Bills (T-Bills), Government of India Dated Securities (G-Secs), and Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs) in both the primary and secondary markets.
- NDS-OM Platform (Statement 2 – Correct): The Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching (NDS-OM) is an anonymous, screen-based electronic order matching system for trading in Government Securities. It is owned by the RBI and operated by the Clearing Corporation of India Limited (CCIL) on behalf of the RBI.
- Central Depository Services Ltd (Statement 3 – Incorrect): CDSL was promoted by the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) in association with leading banks like SBI, Bank of India, and HDFC Bank. The RBI is a regulator and does not promote commercial depositories like CDSL or NSDL.
Historically, the G-Sec market was dominated by institutional players like banks and insurance companies. The opening of the NDS-OM retail segment marked a significant shift toward democratizing access to sovereign debt.
13. Consider the following statements:
- The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
- The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does.
- Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2020)
[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 2 only
[C] 3 only
[D] 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]
Notes:The correct answer is
[A] 1 and 2 only. This question tests the fundamental differences between India’s two primary inflation indices: the Consumer Price Index (CPI) and the Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
- Statement 1 (Correct): The weightage of food in CPI (specifically CPI-Combined) is significantly higher, at approximately 45.86%. In contrast, the weightage of the “Food Articles” and “Manufactured Food Products” group in WPI is much lower, totaling around 24.38%. This is why food price volatility impacts CPI more than WPI.
- Statement 2 (Correct): WPI measures price changes at the wholesale level and only includes goods (commodities). It does not capture the services sector. CPI measures price changes from the perspective of the retail consumer and includes both goods and services (such as education, healthcare, and transport).
- Statement 3 (Incorrect): Historically, the RBI used WPI as its main anchor. However, following the recommendations of the Urjit Patel Committee, the RBI shifted to CPI (Combined) as its key measure of inflation in April 2014. This shift was made because CPI better reflects the cost of living for the general public and includes services.
Key Fact: The Central Statistics Office (CSO) publishes CPI, while the Office of the Economic Adviser (Ministry of Commerce and Industry) publishes WPI. The base year for both indices is currently 2011-12.
14. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
- ‘Commercial Paper’ is a short-term unsecured promissory note.
- ‘Certificate of Deposit’ is a long-term instrument issued by the Reserve Bank of India to a corporation.
- ‘Call Money’ is a short-term finance used for interbank transactions.
- ‘Zero-Coupon Bonds’ are the interest bearing short-term bonds issued by the Scheduled Commercial Banks to corporations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2020)
[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 4 only
[C] 1 and 3 only
[D] 2, 3 and 4 only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [1 and 3 only]
Notes:The correct answer is
[C] 1 and 3 only. This question focuses on the various instruments and mechanisms that function within the Indian Money Market.
- Commercial Paper (Statement 1 – Correct): Introduced in 1990, a Commercial Paper (CP) is a short-term, unsecured promissory note issued by highly rated companies, primary dealers, and all-India financial institutions to raise working capital. Since it is unsecured, it is usually issued by firms with high credit ratings.
- Certificate of Deposit (Statement 2 – Incorrect): A Certificate of Deposit (CD) is a short-term (not long-term) negotiable money market instrument. It is issued by Scheduled Commercial Banks and select All-India Financial Institutions to individuals, corporations, and trusts. It is not issued by the RBI to corporations.
- Call Money (Statement 3 – Correct): Call Money refers to short-term finance repayable on demand, with a maturity period of one day (overnight). It is primarily used by banks to maintain their Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and manage temporary liquidity mismatches through interbank transactions.
- Zero-Coupon Bonds (Statement 4 – Incorrect): Zero-Coupon Bonds (also known as Deep Discount Bonds) are non-interest bearing securities. They do not pay periodic interest (coupons). Instead, they are issued at a significant discount to their face value and redeemed at par. While some can be short-term (like Treasury Bills), they are not exclusively issued by Scheduled Commercial Banks to corporations as interest-bearing instruments.
Key Fact: The Call Money market is the most sensitive segment of the financial system, as changes in call rates quickly reflect the liquidity position of the entire banking sector.
15. Consider the following statements:
- The Reserve Bank of India’s recent directives relating to ‘Storage of Payment System Data’, popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India
- They shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises
- They shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2019)
[A] 1 only
[B] 1 and 2 only
[C] 3 only
[D] 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [1 only]
Notes:The correct answer is
[A] 1 only. The RBI’s ‘Storage of Payment System Data’ directive, issued in April 2018, was designed to ensure better monitoring and unfettered supervisory access to payment data.
- Statement 1 (Correct): The directive mandates that all payment system providers ensure that the entire data relating to payment systems operated by them is stored in a system only in India. This includes end-to-end transaction details and information collected/processed as part of the payment message.
- Statement 2 (Incorrect): There is no requirement for these systems to be owned or operated by public sector enterprises. Both private and foreign payment system providers (like Visa, Mastercard, or UPI-based apps) must comply with the localization rule, but they maintain ownership of their own infrastructure.
- Statement 3 (Incorrect): Payment system providers are required to submit a System Audit Report (SAR) conducted by CERT-IN empanelled auditors, not the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG). Furthermore, this report is submitted to the Reserve Bank of India, as the CAG primarily audits government accounts and public sector undertakings, not private payment providers.
The primary objective of this “data diktat” is to ensure that the RBI has unrestricted access to data for supervisory purposes and to protect the privacy of Indian users.
16. What is the theme of “Payments Vision 2028” roadmap recently released by Reserve Bank of India?
[A] Digital India Growth
[B] Inclusive Banking for All
[C] Shaping India’s Payment Frontier
[D] Secure Digital Bharat
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Shaping India’s Payment Frontier]
Notes:
The Reserve Bank of India has released the “Payments Vision 2028” roadmap with the theme “Shaping India’s Payment Frontier” to guide the future of digital payments. The vision outlines 15 key initiatives and marks a shift beyond the earlier “4Es” (Everyone, Everywhere, Every time) toward consumer trust, system resilience, and global expansion. It proposes a shared liability framework, where both the sender’s and receiver’s banks will jointly bear responsibility for unauthorised digital transactions. It aims to bring e-commerce marketplaces and payment aggregators under direct RBI regulation, strengthening oversight of digital payments.
17. Consider the following statements:
- The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.
- Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
- Treasury bills are issued at a discount from the par value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2018)
[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 3 only
[C] 2 and 3 only
[D] 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [2 and 3 only]
Notes:The correct answer is
[C] 2 and 3 only. This question covers the fundamental mechanics of government borrowing and the role of the RBI in the debt market.
- Statement 1 (Incorrect): The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) manages the public debt of both the Central Government and the State Governments. Under the RBI Act, 1934, it is mandatory for the RBI to manage the debt of the Union, while it manages State debt through bilateral agreements with the respective state governments.
- Statement 2 (Correct): In India, Treasury Bills (T-bills) are short-term debt instruments issued only by the Central Government to meet temporary liquidity mismatches. State Governments do not issue T-bills; they raise short-term funds through a mechanism called Ways and Means Advances (WMA) and long-term funds through State Development Loans (SDLs).
- Statement 3 (Correct): T-bills are zero-coupon securities and pay no interest. Instead, they are issued at a discount to the face value and redeemed at par (face value) on maturity. For example, a 91-day T-bill with a face value of 100 might be issued at 98.20. The difference of 1.80 is the return (yield) for the investor.
Key Facts about T-Bills:
- They are currently issued in three tenors: 91 days, 182 days, and 364 days.
- They are highly liquid and carry zero default risk as they are backed by the central government.
- The minimum amount for investment is 25,000 and in multiples thereof.
18. When the Reserve Bank of India reduces the Statutory Liquidity Ratio by 50 basis points, which of the following is likely to happen? (UPSC Prelims 2015)
[A] India’s GDP growth rate increases drastically
[B] Foreign Institutional Investors may bring more capital into our country
[C] Scheduled Commercial Banks may cut their lending rates
[D] It may drastically reduce the liquidity to the banking system
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Scheduled Commercial Banks may cut their lending rates]
Notes:The correct answer is
[C] Scheduled Commercial Banks may cut their lending rates.The
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is a monetary policy tool used by the RBI to regulate the liquidity in the banking system. It is the minimum percentage of deposits that a commercial bank has to maintain in the form of liquid assets like cash, gold, or government-approved securities.
- Lending Rates (Option C – Correct): When the RBI reduces the SLR (in this case by 50 basis points or 0.5%), it frees up a portion of the banks’ funds that were previously locked in low-yielding government securities. Banks now have more “lendable resources” at their disposal. To attract borrowers and deploy this additional liquidity, banks often lower their Marginal Cost of Funds Based Lending Rate (MCLR) or external benchmark rates, making loans cheaper for consumers and businesses.
- GDP Growth (Option A – Incorrect): While a reduction in SLR is an expansionary move intended to boost investment and consumption, it does not lead to a “drastic” increase in the GDP growth rate. Economic growth is a complex result of various factors, including fiscal policy, global conditions, and structural reforms.
- FII Capital (Option B – Incorrect): Foreign Institutional Investors are more influenced by interest rate differentials between countries, exchange rate stability, and ease of doing business. A minor reduction in SLR is a domestic liquidity adjustment and does not directly trigger a massive influx of foreign capital.
- System Liquidity (Option D – Incorrect): Reducing the SLR increases the liquidity available to the banking system for lending. A “reduction in liquidity” would occur if the RBI increased the SLR or the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR).
Key Concepts:
- Basis Points (bps): A unit of measure for interest rates and other percentages in finance. 100 basis points = 1%. Therefore, 50 basis points is 0.5%.
- Objectives of SLR: 1. To restrict the expansion of bank credit. 2. To ensure the solvency of commercial banks. 3. To compel banks to invest in government securities (G-Secs), helping the government fund its deficit.
19. In the context of Indian economy, which of the following is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘Statutory Reserve Requirements’?
- To enable the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create
- To make the people’s deposits with banks safe and liquid
- To prevent the commercial banks from making excessive profits
- To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to meet their day-to-day requirements
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (UPSC Prelims 2014)
[A] 1 only
[B] 1 and 2 only
[C] 2 and 3 only
[D] 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [1 only]
Notes:The correct answer is
[A] 1 only. Statutory Reserve Requirements, primarily the
Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and the
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), are essential tools used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to manage monetary policy and credit creation.
- Controlling Advances (Statement 1 – Correct): This is the primary macroeconomic purpose. By increasing reserve requirements, the RBI reduces the “loanable funds” available with banks. This restricts the banks’ ability to create credit (advances), thereby controlling the money supply and inflation in the economy.
- Safety and Liquidity of Deposits (Statement 2 – Incorrect): While reserves provide a buffer, the primary mechanism for making deposits “safe” in India is the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC), which insures deposits up to 5 lakh. SLR keeps assets in liquid forms (like Gold or Govt Securities), but the purpose of the statutory mandate is credit control and government financing, not primarily depositor safety.
- Preventing Excessive Profits (Statement 3 – Incorrect): The objective of the RBI is not to regulate the profit margins of commercial banks. While high reserve requirements might inadvertently lower a bank’s profitability (as CRR earns zero interest), it is a side effect of monetary tightening, not a policy goal.
- Vault Cash for Day-to-Day Requirements (Statement 4 – Incorrect): Banks maintain “Vault Cash” based on their own internal assessment of daily withdrawal patterns. CRR is held with the RBI, and SLR is held in specific liquid assets. Neither is meant to address the immediate physical cash needs at a bank counter.
Statutory reserves act as a “leverage” that the Central Bank pulls to either suck liquidity out of the system or inject it back in to stimulate growth.
20. The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of:
- Liquidity of assets
- Branch expansion
- Merger of banks
- Winding-up of banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (UPSC Prelims 2013)
[A] 1 and 4 only
[B] 2, 3 and 4 only
[C] 1, 2 and 3 only
[D] 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [1, 2, 3 and 4]
Notes:The correct answer is
[D] 1, 2, 3 and 4. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) derives its regulatory and supervisory powers from the
Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and the
Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 to ensure the stability and health of the Indian financial system.
- Liquidity of assets (Statement 1 is Correct): The RBI controls the liquidity of commercial banks through various monetary policy tools. It mandates requirements such as the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), which requires banks to maintain a certain percentage of their Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) in the form of liquid assets like gold or government securities.
- Branch expansion (Statement 2 is Correct): Under Section 23 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, banks are required to obtain prior permission from the RBI to open new places of business or change the location of an existing place of business. The RBI uses this power to ensure banking penetration in rural and underserved areas.
- Merger of banks (Statement 3 is Correct): The RBI has the authority to sanction schemes of amalgamation (mergers) for banking companies. In the case of voluntary mergers of private sector banks, the RBI’s approval is mandatory. For public sector banks, while the government takes the lead, it is done in consultation with the RBI.
- Winding-up of banks (Statement 4 is Correct): The RBI has the power to apply to a High Court for the winding up (liquidation) of a banking company if it fails to comply with the requirements of the Banking Regulation Act or if its continued existence is prejudicial to the interests of the depositors.
The RBI acts as the “Banker to the Banks” and the “Lender of Last Resort,” ensuring that every stage of a bank’s lifecycle—from licensing and expansion to consolidation or closure—is strictly monitored to protect the public interest.