Indian Polity & Constitution MCQs
Indian Polity & Constitution Objective / Multiple Choice (MCQs) Questions for Preparation of SSC-CGL, UPSC Civil Services, NDA, CDS, Railways and State Level Public Services Examinations.
11. Who among the following is called the “guardian of the public purse” of India?
[A] Comptroller & Auditor General
[B] Finance Minister
[C] Chairman of Public Accounts Committee
[D] Prime Minister
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Comptroller & Auditor General]
Notes:
Article 148 of the Constitution of India provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department and also the guardian of public purse.
12. Which of the following provisions was provided by the Constitution 44th Amendment?
[A] It ensures the right to property
[B] It ensures the press freedom
[C] It limits the powers of the Government to proclaim internal emergency
[D] It restores to the High Courts and to the Supreme Court their jurisdiction to consider the validity of any Central or State law.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [It restores to the High Courts and to the Supreme Court their jurisdiction to consider the validity of any Central or State law.]
Notes:
The provisions of the 44 th constitutional amendment were:
1. The right to property, which has been the occasion for more than one amendment of the Constitution, would cease to be a fundamental right and become only a legal right.
2. During emergency it enables the rights of the citizen to move the courts for the enforcement of fundamental rights including the right to life and liberty to be suspended. It is sought to be provided that an Emergency can be proclaimed only on the basis of written advice tendered to the President by the Cabinet.
3. A special provision is being made guaranteeing the right of the media to report freely and without censorship the proceedings in Parliament and the State Legislatures.
4. It restores to the High Courts and to the Supreme Court their jurisdiction to consider the validity of any Central or State law. It was proposed to amend articles 132, 133 and 134 and insert a new article 134A to provide that a High Court should consider the question of granting a certificate for appeal to Supreme Court immediately after the delivery of the judgment, decree, final order.
13. In which of the following years the Constitution of India was actually ready?
[A] 1947
[B] 1949
[C] 1950
[D] 1952
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [1949]
Notes:
India needed a new Constitution that constrains governmental power and restricts it to the proper role of the government in a free society, namely to protect life, liberty and property of the citizens. For this purpose the constitution assembly was formed in 1946. The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November, 1949. The Constituent Assembly had members from all parts of India.
14. In which of the following situations the right to Freedom of Speech in India may be restricted? (UPSC Prelims 1991)
[A] If the freedom is used to incite people to violence
[B] If the freedom is used to Propagate nationalization of the private sector
[C] If the freedom is used to Level charges of corruption against those in power
[D] If the freedom is used to Spread superstition
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [If the freedom is used to incite people to violence]
Notes:
The right to Freedom of Speech in India may be restricted, if the freedom is used to Incite people to violence. Sections 292 to 294 of the Indian Penal Code provide instances of restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression in the interest of decency or morality. These sections prohibit the sale or distribution or exhibition of obscene words, etc. in public places.
15. Who among the following was not among the seven members of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
[A] Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar
[B] Dr. K M Munshi
[C] Syed Mohammad Saadullah
[D] G. V. Mavalankar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [G. V. Mavalankar]
Notes:
The Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly consisted of 7 members- DR. B. R. Ambedkar (Chairman), N Gopalaswamy Ayyangar, Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar, Dr. K M Munshi, Syed Mohammad Saadullah, N Madhava Rau and T T Krishnamachari.
16. Which article of the Indian Constitution reflects that it Constitution is neither rigid nor flexible but a synthesis of both?
[A] Article 350
[B] Article 362
[C] Article 368
[D] Article 344
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Article 368]
Notes:
A constitution is considered rigid if it requires a special procedure for its amendment. On the other hand flexible constitution can be amended in the same manner as the ordinary laws are made. Article 368 provides for two types of amendments. Some provisions can be amended with simple majority while some require special majority.
17. Who elects the representatives of union territories in the Rajya Sabha?
[A] President
[B] Governors
[C] Electoral College
[D] Members of Lok Sabha
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Electoral College]
Notes:
An electoral college especially constituted for the purpose of election of Union Territories to the Rajya Sabha indirectly elects the representatives of Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha . This election is also held as per the system of proportional representation and single transferable vote.
18. Which Constitutional Amendment Act provided for establishment of common high courts for two or more states?
[A] 5th Amendment
[B] 6th Amendment
[C] 7th Amendment
[D] 9th Amendment
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [7th Amendment]
Notes:
The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 provided for the establishment of a common high court for two or more states. It also provided for the appointment of additional and acting judges of the high court.
19. Which Article of the Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court to safeguard the Fundamental Rights of the Indian Citizens?
[A] Article 56
[B] Article 50
[C] Article 36
[D] Article 32
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Article 32]
Notes:
The Article 32 of the Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court to safeguard the Fundamental Rights of the Indian Citizens. The Article 32 relates to constitutional remedies for the enforcement of rights conferred by Part III of the Indian Constitution.
20. Which of the following statements is correct for Public Interest Litigation?
[A] It only deals with the rights of the poor
[B] It recognizes that ordinary marketplace for legal services fails to represent everybody
[C] Both of them
[D] None of them
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Both of them]
Notes:
The concept of Public Interest Litigation recognizes the fact that the ordinary marketplace for legal services fails to provide legal representation to significant sections of the population. These usually include the poor, environmentalists, consumers, racial and ethnic minorities, and many others.