If a : b = c : d = e : f = 1 : 2, then (pa + qc + re) : (pb + qd + rf) is equal to :
Q. If a : b = c : d = e : f = 1 : 2, then (pa + qc + re) : (pb + qd + rf) is equal to :
Answer: 1 : 2
Notes: $latex \frac{a}{b} = \frac{c}{d} = \frac{e}{f} = \frac{1}{2}&s=1$ $latex => \frac{pa}{pb} = \frac{qc}{qd} = \frac{re}{rf} = \frac{1}{2}&s=1$ $latex => \frac{pa+qc+re}{pb+qd+rf} = \frac{1}{2} or 1:2&s=1$ Hence option [B] is the right answer.