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Every year, we try our best to provide the reliable solution of the General Studies Paper of the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. I take this opportunity to congratulate my students Mudit Rai, Vipul Goel, Vivekanand Singh, Prabhakar Prakash Ranjan, Anshul Gupta and Ullas Kumar for a success in last year’s examination. GKToday wishes them all the best for their future.
Solution:
Here is our solution of your paper.
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1. The endeavour of ‘Janani Suraksha Yojana’ Programme is
1. to promote institutional deliveries
2. to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery
3. to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A]1 & 2 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C]3 Only
[D]1, 2, & 3
1 & 2 Only
Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is an ambitious scheme launched under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM), the Government of India’s flagship health programme. The scheme is intervention for safe motherhood and seeks to reduce maternal and neo-natal mortality by promoting institutional delivery, i.e. by providing a cash incentive to mothers who deliver their babies in a health facility. There is also provision for cost reimbursement for transport and incentives to Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHA) for encouraging mothers to go for institutional delivery. The scheme is fully sponsored by the Central Government and is implemented in all states and Union Territories (UTs), with special focus on low performing states. There is provision for roping in the private sector by giving accreditation to willing private hospitals/nursing homes for providing delivery services. The wage loss scheme is IGMSY. The correct answer of this question is 1 & 2. The two schemes, we have compared many times. There was a question in GKToday’s Mock Tests also which you can access on this page Question number 9
2. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment:
[A]need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months
[B] need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
[C]must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament
[D]must be a member of the Lok Sabha
Correct Answer is A
3. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A]Only 1
[B]Only 2
[C]Both 1 & 2
[D]Neither 1 nor 2
Both 1 & 2
The Commission is a powerful body whose orders cannot be challenged in a court of law. The orders are laid before the Lok Sabha and the respective
State Legislative Assemblies. However, modifications are not permitted.
4. Consider the following:
1. Hotels and restaurants
2. Motor transport undertakings
3. Newspaper establishments
4. Private medical institutions
The employees of which of the above can have the ‘Social Security’ coverage under “Employees’ State Insurance Scheme’?
[A]Only 1, 2 & 3
[B]4 Only
[C]1, 3 & 4 Only
[D]1, 2, 3 & 4
1, 2, 3 & 4
Employees’ State Insurance Scheme of India is an integrated social security scheme tailored to provide social protection to workers and their dependants, in the organised sector, in contingencies, such as, sickness, maternity and death or disablement due to an employment injury or occupational hazard.
The ESI Act applies to any premises/precincts, where 10 or more persons are employed. A factory or an establishment located in a geographical area notified for implementation of the Scheme, falls under the purview of the Act. Employees of the aforesaid categories of factories and establishments, drawing wages upto Rs.15,000/- (w.e.f. 01.05.2010) a month, are entitled to social security cover under the ESI Act. The wage ceiling for purpose of coverage of employees is revised from time to time, to keep pace with rising cost of living and consequent wage hikes.
The “appropriate Government” State or Central is empowered to extend the provisions of the ESI Act to various classes of establishments, industrial, commercial or agricultural or otherwise. Under these enabling provisions most of the State Govts have extended the ESI Act to certain specific class of establishments, such as, shops, hotels, restaurants, cinemas, preview theatres, motors transport undertakings and newspaper establishments etc., employing 20 or more persons. Further under section 1(5) of the Act, the Scheme has been extended to Private Medical and Educational institutions employing 20* or more persons in certain States/UTs. The correct answer of this question is 1, 2, 3 & 4.
5. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?
1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
[A]1 Only
[B]2 & 4 Only
[C]1, 3 & 4 Only
[D]1, 2, 3 & 4
1, 3 & 4 Only
Finance Commission is obviously correct. CAG report is placed as per article 151. (1). NCSC is as per article 338. Public Account Committee is not
there. So correct answer is 1, 3 & 4
6. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of
1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
[A]Only 1
[B]2 & 3 Only
[C]1 & 3 Only
[D]1, 2 & 3
Only 1
The article 368 says that the constitution amendment bills have to be passed by both houses individually. In case of any disagreement between the two Houses of Parliament on a Constitution Amendment Bill, there CANNOT be a joint sitting of the Houses of Parliament. Then how to move forward?
You can not move forward in fact :) The fate of such bills is decided in this way only, no alternatives.
The makers of the constitution did not want that every now and then the MPS sit together and make changes in it. The idea is to make the “constitution amendment difficult” so that its value can be retained.
This means that the amending power of the parliament is subject to procedural check via the amending power itself. The procedure laid down in article 368 has basically imposed restriction on the parliament itself. You can imagine, how difficult is it to gain two third majority of members present and voting and then absolute majority of the total members of each house of the parliament. Please note that in past a CPI member Bhupesh Gupta had once brought forward a bill, which sought to amend the article 368 and provide for a joint sitting. It was not passed, because it itself was a Constitution amendment bill :) Then, a deadlock on Money Bill does not arises. Correct answer Only 1
7. How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?
1. DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country.
2 .DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures .
3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.
4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilization of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A]1, 2 & 3 Only
[B]3 & 4 Only
[C]4 Only
[D]1, 2, 3 & 4
3 & 4 Only
DRDA watch over and ensure effective utilization of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes. Statement 4 is correct. Then, the endeavour and objective of the DRDAs is to secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for reducing poverty in the district. Statement 3 is correct. Only these two statements are correct in this question. So Correct Answer is 3 & 4 ONLY.
8. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties, laid down in the Indian Constitution?
1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
Select the correct answer, using the codes below:
[A]1 & 2 Only
[B]2 Only
[C]1, 3, & 4 Only
[D]1, 2, 3 & 4
1, 3, & 4 Only
Fundamental Duties: Article 51 A
(a) to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem;
(b) to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom;
(c) to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;
(d) to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;
(e) to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional
diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women;
(f) to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture;
(g) to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures;
(h) to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
(i) to safeguard public property and to abjure violence;
(j) to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and
achievement;
(k) who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.
9. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?
1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India .
2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme court the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A]1 & 3 Only
[B]3 & 4 Only
[C]4 Only
[D]1, 2, 3 & 4
1 & 3 Only
Let me analyse the statements one by one:
Fist statement:
While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India
We should note that that the mechanism for the appointment of judges to the high courts and the Supreme Court has changed after the 1993 and 1998 verdicts of the Supreme Court. Today, the Executive and Legislative organs of the State have no real role in the appointment of judges. According to Article 124 (2) of the Constitution, every judge of the Supreme Court shall be appointed by the President after consultations with such judges as the President may deem necessary. But in the case of the appointment of a judge other than the chief justice, Chief Justice of India shall always be consulted. The statement is correct and to a great extent, safeguards the autonomy of honourable Supreme Court of India.
Second Statement:
The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
This is a wrong statement.
As per Article 124 (4) the Judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from his office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two thirds of the members of that House present and voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Please also note that the provision for the removal of judges of the Supreme Court or high courts under Article 124 (4) for proven misbehaviour has become inoperative in practice, as has been proved in the Justice Ramaswamy impeachment case. There are no provisions to deal with deviant behaviour as distinct from “proven misbehaviour”. In other words, under the present dispensation, a judge is appointed solely on the recommendation of the judiciary and, for all practical purposes, no judge can ever be removed. To correct this absurd situation a national judicial commission with a decisive say in the appointment and removal of judges has been proposed.
Third Statement:
The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.This is a correct statement and most of you know about this.
Fourth Statement:
All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme court the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.This is an incorrect statement. The Supreme Court Officers and Servants (Conditions of Service and Conduct) make different rulings, where the role of Government is actually nothing. The clause 6 says that all appointments of the Court Servants shall be made by Chief Justice in his absolute discretion.
10. To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on Thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this
context, what advantage does Thorium hold over uranium?
1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.
2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium.
3. Thorium produces less harmful waste in comparison to uranium.
Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?
[A]1 Only
[B]2 & 3 Only
[C]1 & 3 Only
[D]1,2 & 3
1,2 & 3
Thorium fuel generates no new bomb-usable material in the waste profile; the waste consists of the radioisotope Uranium-233, or U233, which is virtually impossible to weaponize/ Thorium fuel will generate more energy per unit of mass than uranium fuel by a factor of approximately 30. Thorium is four times more abundant in nature than uranium, and is widely distributed throughout the Earth’s crust. All statements in this question are correct.
11. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs
[A]the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
[B] the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
[C]all the solar radiations
[D]Infrared part of solar radiation
Infrared part of solar radiation
D is the correct answer. You may read more about it here
12. Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth?
[A]Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium
[B]Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen
[C]Oxygen, Calcium, Phosphorus
[D]Carbon, Hydrogen, Potassium
Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen
The correct answer of this question, as most of you know, is Carbon, Hydrogen and Nitrogen. In fact, the early biochemistry was not simply the reactions of Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen and Oxygen was bit far from it, was CO2, N and water resulting in the organic acids such as oxalic acid.
13. What are the reasons for the people’s resistance to the introduction of Bt brinjal in India?
1. Bt brinjal has been created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus into its genome.
2. The seeds of Bt brinjal are terminator seeds and therefore, the farmers have to buy the seeds before every season from the seed companies.
3. There is an apprehension that the consumption of Bt brinjal may have adverse impact on health.
4. There is some concern that the introduction of Bt brinjal may have adverse effect on the biodiversity.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
[A]1, 2 & 3 Only
[B]2 & 3 only
[C]3 & 4 only
[D]1,2,3 & 4
3 & 4 Only
The first statement is incorrect. The second statement is also NOT correct. Bt Brinjal is NOT a terminator seed, as of now. link The third statement is obviously correct. The 4th statement is dubious but is a correct statement as it says –some concern that–
14. Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created?
1. To enable them to withstand drought
2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce
3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations
4. To increase their shelf life
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
[A]1 & 2 Only
[B]3 & 4 Only
[C]1, 2 & 4 Only
[D]1, 2, 3 & 4
1, 2 & 4 Only
15. Consider the following statements:
The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he
1. Exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British
2. Interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians
3. Stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else
Which among the above statements is/ are correct?
[A]1 Only
[B]2 & 3 Only
[C]1 & 3 Only
[D]1, 2 & 3
1 Only
The second statement is incorrect. Regarding third statement, we should note that Dadabhai Naoroji was a great social reformer of Bombay, who founded the Parsi Law Association. But when we say he stressed the eradication of “all the social evils before anything else” we are not justifying the role of Dadabhai naoroji. This is an incorrect statement. Correct answer of this question is Only 1
16. With reference to Dhrupad, one of the major traditions of India that has been kept alive for centuries, which of the following statements are correct?
1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput Kingdom period.
2. Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual music.
3. Dhrupad Alap uses Sanskrit syllables from Mantras
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
[A]1 & 2 Only
[B]2 & 3 Only
[C]1,2 & 3 Only
[D]None of the above is correct
2 & 3 Only
The first statement is incorrect. We are told that Dhrupad has its origin in back to Vedas period. The modern dhrupad probably descends from a form (dhurva) mentioned in the Na¯tyasha¯stra that developed in the Gwalior region (central Indo-Gangetic Plain) and probably reached a peak of popularity in the sixteenth century. Most dhrupads are religious in nature, praising Hindu gods (particularly Krishna) although some texts praise kings. The performance of dhrupad almost always begins with an introductory, free-time a¯la¯p, which can range from a brief affirmation of the melodic underpinnings of the performance (in religious contexts) to elaborate noteby- note explorations of the possibilities inherent in the underlying pitch resources of ra¯ga (melody). The concert dhrupad a¯la¯p generally has two sections: the first (the a¯la¯p of the a¯la¯p) has the usual pattern of a growing pitch ambitus in free tempo, and the second (the nomtom or jor), an unmeasured, but pulsed, presentation of the ra¯ga.
17. How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances?
1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatanatyam.
2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.
Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?
[A]Only 1
[B]Only 2
[C]Both 1 & 2
[D]Neither 1 nor 2
Only 1
The first statement is correct as Kuchipudi presents more realistic acting occasionally including dialogue spoken by the dancers. Another unique feature of Kuchipudi is the Tarangam, in which the performer dances on the edges of a brass plate, executing complicated rhythmic patterns with dexterity, while sometimes also balancing a pot of water on the head. So, second statement is incorrect. Correct answer is Only 1
18. With reference to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which of the following practices?
1. Meditation and control of breath
2. Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place
3. Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
[A]1 & 2 Only
[B]2 & 3 Only
[C]3 Only
[D]1,2 & 3
3 Only
As far as meditation is concerned, Sufi practice Muraqaba which is a form of meditation only. This is not related to medieval history of India. First statement is incorrect. Second statement is also incorrect. Third is correct. Correct Answer Only 3.
The question would invite a lot of research though. My answer has raised some counter questions also but we maintain our answer as correct. A few snippets / sources would suffice the reason, one of them is as follows:
source of above snippet is page This Book, Page 232
19. The Rowlatt Act aimed at
[A]compulsory economic support to war efforts
[B]imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial
[C]suppression of the Khilafat Movement
[D]imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press
imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial
20. The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in history, because:
1. The Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence
2. The rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that Session
3. A resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A]1 Only
[B]2 & 3
[C]1 & 3
[D]None of the above
1 Only
Jinnah’s Two Nations Theory came up in March 1940, so how could they reject in 1929. Statement 2 is also incorrect. The correct answer of this question
is Only 1 .
21. With reference to National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the jobs of ‘ASHA’, a trained community health worker?
1. Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup
2 . Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy
3. Providing information on nutrition and immunization
4. Conducting the delivery of baby
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
[A]1, 2 and 3 only
[B]2 and 4 Only
[C]1 and 3 only
[D]1, 2, 3 & 4
1, 2 and 3 only
In this question, the 4th statement “Conducting the delivery of baby” is not ASHA’s job. The second option “Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy”, the examiner wants to know whether you are aware of “Nishchay” or not. Under the NRHM, Government of India has introduced rapid home pregnancy test kits (Nishchay). Government is not promoting this as a pregnancy test kit alone, but is promoting it as an entry point to RCH and family planning services for women seeking quality and assured RCH and FP services. Now, the government has made these Nishchay pregnancy test kits available free of cost to all women in rural areas through the ASHAs, thus reaching out to women, who would otherwise have to travel great distances to confirm a pregnancy. A women in villages, who doubts that she might be pregnant can reach out to local ASHA and get “Nischay” free of cost. That is why this option is correct. So the correct answer of this question is 1, 2 & 3
22. Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?
1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces
2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
[A]1 only
[B]2 and 3 only
[C]1 and 3 only
[D]1, 2 & 3
1 and 3 only
The first statement is correct in this question. Second statement is incorrect because first statutory recognition of separate electorates for Muslims was contained in the Act of 1909. In 1919, the British went ahead and gave separate electorates to Sikhs, Anglo-Indians, Christians and Europeans. So second statement is incorrect. Third statement which says “Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces” is correct. Government of India Act 1919 which gave the provinces more legislative powers provided for the framing of rules for the devolution of authority between the Centre and the Provinces. However, judicial review was prohibited. The correct answer of this question would be : 1 & 3 only . You may read about Government of India Act 1919 Here
23. During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed. What was the reason for its formation?
[A]Different social reform groups or organizations of Bengal region united to form a single body to discuss the issues of larger interest and to prepare appropriate petitions/representations to the government
[B]Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a purpose
[C]Behramji Malabari and M. G. Ranade decided to bring together all the social reform groups of the country under one organization
[D]None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
B is correct answer
The three options given in this question are so close, that one would need to analyze each of them very carefully. The first statement is incorrect, because “appropriate petitions/representations” were the political functions, far from the objectives of National Social Conference. The second statement ” Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a purpose” is a CORRECT statement. Please note that when Congress was founded in 1885 in Bombay, its organizers had a feeling that along with the political topic, a place should be given to the discussion of social topics also. So, R. Raghunath Rao and M G Ranade addressed the congress on subjects related to social reforms. But on a second consideration, the organizers of Congress felt that the Congress Platform should be devoted to political topics only. As those interested in the social freforms, also felt in a need for it, so it was decided to inaugurate the National Social Conference as a separate movement. Here we should also note that hostility to social-reform issues expressed by a majority of nationalists in the congress had led to the formation of the Indian National Social Conference. The National Social Conference met annually from 1887 to 1895 as part of the INC Sessions.
Now lets, discuss the third statement. This statement is the very soul of the National Social Conference but has been presented by your examiner in an incorrect way. It is true that the objective of the National Social Conference was to strengthen the forces of reform by bringing together every year in the representatives of various associations and movements scattered all over India , that were struggling against the social evils. Yet, the two names given by UPSC in this question are incorrect, that leads me to eliminate this option. Please note that the conference was founded by MG Ranade an Raghunath Rao. Behram Ji Malabari in those days was working against Infant Marriage and Enforced Widowhood. So, the correct answer of this question is B.
24. Which of the following parties ‘were established by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar?
1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India
2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation
3. The Independent Labour Party
Select the correct answer the codes given below :
[A]1 & 2 Only
[B]2 & 3 Only
[C]1 & 3 Only
[D]1, 2 & 3
2 & 3 Only
Dr. Ambedkar had organized peasants and workers under his Independence Labour Party. Further, All India Scheduled Castes Federation was the first all India political party which comprised exclusively the Scheduled Castes. It was founded by Dr. Ambedkar in a national convention of the Scheduled Castes held at Nagpur. The Peasants and Workers Party (PWP) came up in 1948. It was not founded by Dr. Ambedkar.
25. With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements
1. The country’s total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other States.
2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands is larger than that of inland wetlands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A]Only 1 is correct
[B]Only 2 is correct
[C]Both 1 & 2
[D]Neither 1 nor 2
Only 1
Gujarat has 12,70,875 Hactare area under wetands. Gujarat is followed by West Bengal which as 5,53,090 hactare of wetlands. The statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
26. Consider the following crops of India:
1. Groundnut
2. Sesamum
3. Pearl millet
Which of the above is / are predominantly rainfed crop/crops?
[A]1 & 2 Only
[B]2 & 3 Only
[C]3 Only
[D]1,2 & 3
1,2 & 3
Sesamum is mainly a rainfed crop and is grown on marginal, dry and slopy lands. Nearly 80% of the area sown to groundnuts in India is rainfed and relies entirely on summer monsoon rainfall.Among cereals, the main rainfed cereals grown in India are sorghum , pearl millet (Bajra), Finger Millet (Ragi) Correct Answer of this question is 1, 2 & 3
27. When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following :
1. Deep gorges
2. U-turn river courses
3. Parallel mountain ranges
4. Steep gradients causing land sliding
Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for Himalayas being young fold mountains?
[A]1 & 2 Only
[B]1, 2 & 4 Only
[C]3 & 4 Only
[D]1,2, 3 & 4
1,2, 3 & 4
Young fold mountains are rising under the influence of the earth’s tectonic forces. They have a variety of rock structures, deep gorges and high pyramidal peaks. In High Himlayas the rivers have steep gradients, which result from the differential uplift of the High Himalayas. It suggested a long and narrow arc of High Himalayas being uplifted during quartnerary. Then, The Himalayas are called young fold mountains because parallel ridges are found here. Finally , 2 is also correct. Correct answer of this question is 1, 2, 3 & 4
28. Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earth’s surface, because:
1. The atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth’s surface
2. There is more moisture in the upper atmosphere
3. The air is less dense in the upper atmosphere
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
[A]1 Only
[B]2 & 3 Only
[C]1 & 3 only
[D]1, 2 & 3
1 Only
The first statement given in this question is correct. Temperature falls off with height at a predictable rate because the air near the surface is heated and becomes light, and the air higher up cools to space and becomes heavy. The second statement is obviously incorrect. This is because the water vapour, which accounts for around 1% of air varies greatly in troposphere and decreases rapidly with the altitude. The third statements is also incorrect as mentioned above. Correct answer of this question is Only 1.
29. The acidification of Oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern?
1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected.
2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected.
3. Survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larve will be adversely affected.
4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected
Which among the statements given above is / are correct?
[A] 1,2 & 3 only
[B] 2 Only
[C] 1 & 3 Only
[D] 1,2 3 & 4
In this question 1, 2 & 3 are easy to identify as correct statements.
30. In India. other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General
(CAG)?
1 . CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4 . While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A]1,3 & 4 Only
[B]2 Only
[C]2 & 3 Only
[D]1,2, 3 & 4
2 & 3 Only
The Comptroller & Auditor General of India plays a key role in the functioning of the financial committees of Parliament and the State Legislatures. He has come to be recognised as a ‘friend, philosopher and guide’ of the Committee. His Reports generally form the basis of the Committees’ working, although they are not precluded from examining issues not brought out in his Reports. He scrutinises the notes which the Ministries submit to the Committees and helps the Committees to check the correctness submit to the Committees and helps the Committees to check the correctness of facts and figures in their draft reports. In this question, correct statements are 2 & 3
31. Lord Buddha’s image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called ‘Bhumisparsha Mudra’. It symbolizes
[A]Buddha’s calling of the Earth to watch over Mara and to prevent Mara from disturbing his meditation
[B]Buddha’s calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara
[C]Buddha’s reminder to his followers that they all arise from the Earth and finally dissolve into the Earth, and thus this life is transitory
[D]Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct in this context
Buddha’s calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara
Among Buddhist symbols, Gautama Budhha used the Bhumisparsha gesture to summon the earth goddess, Sthavara , as witness to his attainment of Buddhahood. This gesture signifies the state of enlightment after meditating under the bodhi tree for four weeks and withstanding all the temptations put before him by Mara, the god of evil. Please note the language of the statements a and b given in this question. statement a says that Buddha calls Sthavara to prevent Mara from disturbing is meditation. This is incorrect. The correct answer of this question is B.
32. The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of:
[A]Bhakti
[B]Image Worship and Yajnas
[C]Worship of Nature and Yajnas
[D]Worship of Nature and Bhakti
Worship of Nature and Yajnas
33. Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?
1. It opposed idolatry.
2. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts.
3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible
Select the correct answer:
[A]1 Only
[B]1 & 2 Only
[C]3 Only
[D]1,2, & 3
1 & 2 Only
The third statement in this question would need your attention. The doctrine of infallibility of vedas, was not popularized by Brahmo Samaj. If you read about this in history books, you find that , though the Brahmo samaj originated as a reformist movement on the ancient foundations of Vedic religion, yet there infallibility of vedas was questioned by many of its members. Not only Devendranath Tagore was doubtful about the vedas infallibility but also he selected some portions of ‘Upanishada” and published them as Brahmo Dharma. Then, the “seed principles’ of Brahmonism was also propounded. What I want to say is that the third statement is incorrect. So the correct answer of this question is 1 & 2.
34. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers’ bank. This would imply which of the following?
1. Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI.
2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.
3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
[A]2 & 3 Only
[B]1 & 2 Only
[C]1 & 3 Only
[D]1, 2 & 3
1 & 2 Only
The third statement also seems to be correct but the statement is ambiguous.
35. Under which of the following circumstances may ‘capital gains’ arise?
1. When there is an increase in the sales of a product
2. When there is a natural increase in the value of the property owned
3. When you purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value due to increase in its popularity
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
[A]1 Only
[B]2 & 3 Only
[C]2 Only
[D]1,2 & 3 Only
2 & 3 Only
One of the easiest question. Please note that increase in the value of collectibles such as stamps, paintings, coins,precious metals,precious gems, rare rugs, antiques, alcoholic beverages, and fine art also come under the capital gains. Correct answer is 2 & 3 Only.
36. Which of the following measures would result in an increase in the money supply in the economy?
1. Purchase of government securities from the public by the Central Bank
2. Deposit of currency in the commercial banks by the public
3. Borrowing by the government from the Central Bank
4. Sale of government securities to the public by the Central Bank
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
[A]1 Only
[B]2 & 4 Only
[C]1 & 3
[D]2, 3 & 4
1 & 3
Please note that any money that flows out of RBI leads to increase in the money supply. When the RBI purchases government securities from Public, the money flows out of RBI, this will increase the money supply. So statement 1 is correct. When currency is deposited by public in commercial banks, its mere transfer of money from public to commercial banks. the net effect on the money supply is nil.So statement 2 is incorrect. When the Government borrows from RBI, the money again flows out of RBI. To fulfil the demand of the Government, RBI will print new money and this leads to increase in the money supply thus statement 3 is also correct.
37. Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India?
1. Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India
2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies
3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies
4. Portfolio investment
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
[A]1,2, 3 & 4
[B]2 & 4 Only
[C]1 & 3 Only
[D]1,2 & 3 Only
1,2 & 3 Only
Direct Investments and Portfolio investment are basic terms. Suppose I have Rs. 100 with me. I need to invest it somewhere. If, I buy a land in Rs. 70, build a factory in Rs. 15, get human resources in Rs. 10 and keep Rs. 5 for my operations, it will be my Direct Investment. If I invest it in a company in which by investing Rs. 100 I can get some control in management or take part in its operations, then also it will be my Direct Investment. However, if I think that why to take so much of headache, and I just want to make money by investing on its “listed” securities, make money when price of securities go up and exit, it will be “portfolio” investment. Now prefix Foreign with these two terms and u know what is difference between FDI and FPI. In this question, options 1, 2 & 3 are correct.
38. Consider the following statements:
The price of any currency in international market is decided by the
1. World Bank
2. Demand for provided by concerned goods/services the country
3. Stability of the government of the concerned country
4. Economic potential of the country in question
Which of the statements given above are correct?
[A]1, 2, 3 & 4
[B]2 & 3 Only
[C]3 & 4 Only
[D]1 & 4 Only
2 & 3 Only
39. The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that:
[A]big banks should try to open offices in each district
[B]there should be stiff competition among the various nationalized banks
[C]individual banks should adopt particular districts for intensive development
[D]all the banks should make intensive efforts to mobilize deposits
individual banks should adopt particular districts for intensive development
Under the Scheme, each district had been assigned to different banks (public and private) to act as a consortium leader to coordinate the efforts of banks in the district particularly in matters like branch expansion and credit planning. The Lead Bank was to act as a consortium leader for coordinating the efforts of all credit institutions in each of the allotted districts for expansion of branch banking facilities and for meeting the credit needs of the rural economy.Lead bank Scheme
40. Consider the following :
1. Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops
2. Use of mobile cannons in warfare
3. Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies
Which of the above was/were introduced into India by the English?
[A]1 Only
[B]1 & 2
[C]2 & 3
[D]None
None
Raja Todarmal had introduced the assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops, as Akbar’s able minister. Akbar’s grandfather Babur had already done conquest Delhi through his brilliant use of mobile light canon, centuries before British. The third statement is also incorrect. Correct answer is none
41. With reference to the guilds (Shreni) of ancient India that played a very important role in the country’s economy, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Every guild was registered with the central authority of the State and the king was the chief administrative authority on them.
2. The wages, rules of work, standards and prices were fixed by the guild.
3. The guild had judicial powers over its own members.
Choose the correct option:
[A]1 & 2 Only
[B]3 Only
[C]2 & 3 Only
[D]1,2, & 3
1,2, & 3
This question is based upon a very special reference made by Kautilya in Arthashstra about the registration of Guilds. He had devises the method of regulation of guilds by:
1. Registration of the Guilds
2. Laying down the checks and balances on the activities of the artisans and forming the penal laws to prevent their transgression
3. Appointment of special tribunals to administer the laws.
All statements in this question are correct.
42. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the:
[A]Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
[B]Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919
[C]Government of India Act, 1935
[D]Indian Independence Act, 1947
Government of India Act, 1935
As far as legislative powers are concerned, the constitution of India follows a system that is similar to the Canadian Constitution, but Indian Constitution has a more elaborate Concurrent List which was a result of following the Australian Constitution. The scheme of division of legislative powers is almost same as in the Government of India Act 1935. Then, if we talk about the distribution of the taxing power and revenues under the Indian Constitution, we find that it follows the scheme of 1935 act, which was actually based upon the experiences of 65 years since the times of Lord Mayo. Correct answer is C.
43. Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import millions of tonnes of coal?
1. It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for future, and import it from other countries for the present use.
2. Most of the power plants in India are coal-based and they are not able to get sufficient supplies of coal from within the country.
3. Steel companies need large quantity of coking coal which has to be imported.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A]1 Only
[B]2 & 3 Only
[C]1 & 3 Only
[D]1,2, & 3
2 & 3 Only
This question does not need an explanation.
44. A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his village which was situated 5 km east of the point where he was standing. He had no instruments to find the direction but he located the polestar. The most convenient way now to reach his village is to walk in the:
[A]direction facing the polestar
[B]direction opposite to the polestar
[C]direction keeping the polestar to his left
[D]direction keeping the polestar to his right
direction keeping the polestar to his left
UPSC has lifted this beautiful question from UPSC Prelims paper 1992. Its easy, the person would walk in the direction, keeping the polestar to his
left.
45. Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called ‘rare earth metals’. Why?
1. China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export.
2. Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not found in any country.
3. Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and there is a growing demand for these elements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A]1 Only
[B]2 & 3 Only
[C]1 & 3 Only
[D]1,2 & 3
1 & 3 Only
The second statement is not correct. Also note that China has now (day before yesterday) lifted the restrictions :)
46. Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification.
2. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only.
3. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
[A]1 Only
[B]2 & 3 Only
[C]1 & 3 Only
[D]1,2 & 3
1 Only
The second statement you needed to eliminate because CO is a major concern. Then, third statement is also incorrect.
47. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems?
1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the water.
3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A]1 Only
[B]2 & 3 Only
[C]1 & 3 Only
[D]1,2 & 3
1 Only
UV does not change the taste, odor or color of the water.
48. Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its importance?
1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity.
2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far.
3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency.
4. It can be used as ‘conducting electrodes’ required for touch screens, LeOs and organic LEOs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
[A]1 and 2 only
[B]3 and 4 only
[C]1, 2 and 4 only
[D]1,2,3 & 4
1, 2 and 4 only
All of you must have eliminated the third statement.
49. Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning?
1. Smelting units
2. Pens and pencils
3. Paints
4. Hair oils and cosmetics
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
[A]1,2 & 3 only
[B]1 and 3 only
[C]2 & 4 only
[D]1,2,3 & 4
1 and 3 only
Some people point that all options are correct, one of them citing example of cosmetics such as Sindoor. But Sindoor or Vermilion contains Mercury (HgS) not Lead. Then, UPSC does not expect you to be an expert in chemicals. They simply want to know whether you know that lead pencils are graphite pencils. Then, one reader says that in inks of some pens cause lead pollution. But do you think, it is really a health Hazard. Check applications of lead on wikipedia and you will find that you can not wipe-out lead from our life. In cosmetics, there have been some concerns about lead acetate in Lipstics in US. But in this question, UPSC intentionally does not give a choice to choose 1, 3 & 4. In our view, the correct answer is 1 and 3 only. You can read about the exposure routes here In Our view, the question could bring out more from the aspirants, if UPSC had put an option like Chinese toys,Hunting Bullets etc.
50. With reference to ‘stem cells’ frequently in the news, which of the following statements is / are correct?
1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.
2. Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs.
3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
[A]1 & 2 Only
[B]2 & 3 Only
[C]3 Only
[D]1,2 and 3
2 & 3 Only
51. Consider the following statements:
Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone depleting substances, are used
1. in the production of plastic foams
2. in the production of tubeless tyres
3. in cleaning certain electronic components
4. as pressurizing agents in aerosol cans
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A]1,2 and 3 only
[B]4 Only
[C]1,3 & 4 Only
[D]1,2,3 & 4
1, 3 & 4
52. A team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory including those from India created the heaviest anti-matter (anti-helium nucleus).
What is/are the implication/ implications of the creation of anti-matter?
1. It will make mineral prospecting and oil exploration easier and cheaper.
2. It will help probe the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies made of anti-matter.
3. It will help understand the evolution of the universe.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
[A]1 Only
[B]2 & 3 only
[C]3 Only
[D]1,2 & 3
2 & 3 only
You may read about it here
53. Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as evidence/ evidences for the ‘continued expansion of universe?
1. Detection of microwaves in space
2. Observation of redshift phenomenon in space
3. Movement of asteroids in space
4. Occurrence of supernova explosions in space
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
[A]1 and 2
[B]2 Only
[C]1,3 & 4
[D]None
1 and 2
The fourth statement seems correct but is not. The supernova explosions have helped astronomers determine both the distance of the galaxy and the redshift of the galaxy. The astronomers could then compare distance to expansion, and create a kind of ‘expansion history’ of the Universe. This showed that the expansion of universe was “increasing” means “the Universe’s expansion is accelerating”.
54. Electrically charged particles from space travelling at speeds of several hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the Earth. What prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth?
[A]The Earth’s magnetic field diverts them towards its poles
[B]Ozone layer around the Earth reflects them back to outer space
[C]Moisture in the upper layers of atmosphere prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth
[D]None of the statements (a), (b) and (e) given above is correct
A is correct answer and is a reason of aurorae too.
55. With reference to the scientific progress of ancient India, which of the statements given below are correct?
1. Different kinds of specialized surgical instruments were in common use by 1st century AD.
2. Transplant of internal organs in the human body had begun by the beginning of 3rd century AD.
3. The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5th century AD.
4. The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in 7th century AD.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
[A]1 and 2 Only
[B]3 and 4 Only
[C]1,3 & 4 Only
[D]1,2,3,4
1,3 & 4 Only
Lets analyze these statements:
1. Different kinds of specialized surgical instruments were in common use by 1st century AD.
This is an correct statement. We have been told that in ancient India, it was Sushrut who is known to be the first surgeon. He not only used the S type and U type surgical instruments but also has documented plastic surgery. However, historians have not been able to assign a definite period to Sushruta. The era of Sushrut is most probably BC and definitely it was prior to 1st century AD.
2. Transplant of internal organs in the human body had begun by the beginning of 3rd century AD.
Sushruta mentioned the plastic surgery in which the flaps of nose skins were used to replace at other parts. We don’t have (most probably) the sources that write about internal transplant
3. The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5th century AD.
This is a correct statement and hints towards Aryabhatta’s Surya Siddhanta. Aryabhata has given the sine and versed sine tables familiar to the students of mathematics.
4. The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in 7th century AD.
Again this is a correct statement and hints towards Brahamgupta , who gave the formula for the area of the cyclic quadrilateral.
Correct answer of this question should be 1, 3 and 4 only.
56. With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following was/were common to both Buddhism and Jainism?
1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment
2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
3. Denial of efficacy of rituals
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
[A]1 only
[B]2 and 3 only
[C]1 and 3 only
[D]1,2 & 3
2 and 3 only
57. Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of Inclusive Governance?
1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking
2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts
3. Increasing the government spending on public health
4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme
Choose the correct answer:
[A]1 and 2 only
[B]3 and 4 only
[C]2,3 and 4 only
[D]1,2,3 & 4
2,3 and 4 only
Kindly pay attention to statement 2. You must be aware that in last few years, Government has strengthened the district as the unit of planning in almost all Centrally sponsored programmes. Government has also consciously structured the flagship programmes in a manner that strengthens decentralized management through local institutions. In the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan and the National Rural Health Mission, District level Plans are being prepared and funded. In the National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme, village panchayat level plans are prepared and aggregated at the District level as a District Plan and funds released to executing agencies which happen to be largely the panchayats. Similarly in the urban areas, under JNNURM, 63 cities have evolved medium term development plans for the cities and have been supported with Central Government funds. Each district planning committee has a crucial role in building a thoughtful vision for its district through a participative and inclusive process. This is a correct statement. Option 3 & 4 are also correct. Correct answer is 2,3 & 4 only.
58. The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the:
[A]three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent
[B]three main linguistic divisions into which the languages of India can be classified
[C]three main styles of Indian temple architecture
[D]three main musical Gharanas prevalent in India
three main styles of Indian temple architecture
Most of you know even also about Gadag style which is known for ornate columns :)
59. The Congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces in 1939, because:
[A]the Congress could not form ministries in the other four provinces
[B]emergence of a left wing’ in the Congress made the working of the ministries impossible
[C]there were widespread communal disturbances in their provinces
[D] None of the statements (a), (b) and (e) given above is correct
None (D)
None of them was a reason. The actual reason was that congress, following its policy of non-cooperation in the war effort had called upon the ministries to
resign. For Jinnah , it was a recipe for organizing the DOD on 22.12.1939
60. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?
[A]To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
[B]To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services
[C]To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement
[D]To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners
To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services
The second part of the given statement in option B is known to almost all of you. First part of this statement is also correct and is as per the article 249., which says 249 (1) Notwithstanding anything in the foregoing provisions of this Chapter, if the Council of States has declared by resolution supported by not less than two thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State List specified in the resolution, it shall be lawful for Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India with respect to that matter while the resolution remains in force.
61. How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor?
1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agri-business centres in rural areas
2. By strengthening ‘self-help groups’ and providing skill development
3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
[A]1 & 2
[B]2 Only
[C]1 & 3 Only
[D]1, 2 & 3
2 Only
The objective of the Mission is to reduce poverty among rural BPL by strengthening ‘self-help groups’ and providing skill development and promoting diversified and gainful self-employment and wage employment opportunities which would lead to an appreciable increase in income on sustainable basis. In the long run, it will ensure broad based inclusive growth and reduce disparities by spreading out the benefits from the islands of growth across the regions, sectors and communities.
62. The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following?
1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level
2. Purchasing power parity at national level
3. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
[A]1 Only
[B]2 & 3 Only
[C]1 & 3 Only
[D]1, 2 & 3
1 Only
The Human Development Index measures the Standard of living, as indicated by the natural logarithm of gross domestic product per capita at purchasing power parity. The Multidimensional Poverty Index measures the standard of living on the basis of deprivation of Cooking fuel, Toilet, Water, Electricity, Floor, Assets. Correct Answer is 1 Only.
63. Which of the following is / are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?
1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design
2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India’s demographic dividend
3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
[A]1 Only
[B]2 & 3 Only
[C]1 & 3 Only
[D]1, 2 & 3
1 & 3 Only
The 13FC report has an elaborate design for the GST. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Report basically discusses the improved implementation of the existing schemes. The third statement is correct. The report in its para 10.144 mentions: “Taking into account the demand of local bodies that they be allowed to benefit from the buoyancy of central taxes and the Constitutional design of supplementing the resources of panchayats and municipalities through grants-in-aid, we recommend that local bodies be transferred a percentage of the divisible pool of taxes (over and above the share of the states), as stipulated by us, after converting this share to grant-in-aid under Article 275.”
64. What is/are the recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the growth of manufacturing sector?
1. Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones
2. Providing the benefit of ‘single window clearance’
3. Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
[A]1 Only
[B]2 & 3 Only
[C]1 & 3 Only
[D]1, 2 & 3
1, 2 & 3
All three are parts of National Manufacturing Policy . You may read about the policy here
65. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India:
1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament
2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill
3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-an-account
4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office
5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
[A]1, 2, 3 & 5 Only
[B]1, 2 & 4 only
[C]3, 4 & 5 Only
[D]1, 2, 3 , 4 & 5 Only
1, 2, 3 & 5 Only
The statement 1, 2, 3 & 5 are as per various provisions in the constitution of India. Kindly pay attention to statement 4. The review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure is NOT done by a Parliamentary Budget Office but is done by the central government (Finance Ministry) which is as per the provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003. This act requires that review in trend of receipts and expenditure be undertaken in relation to the budget on a quarterly basis (and not periodic or at least mid-year as the statement says). The rules prescribe the form for the quarterly review of the trends of receipts and expenditures. The rules mandate the Central Government to take appropriate corrective action in case of revenue and fiscal deficits exceeding 45 per cent of the budget estimates, or total non-debt receipts falling short of 40 per cent of the budget estimates at the end of first half of the financial year.
66. Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932, mainly because:
[A]Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations
[B]Congress and Muslim League had differences of opinion
[C]Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award
[D]None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award
On August 17, 1932, Ramsay MacDonald had announced his communal award, reserving seats for the “Depressed Classes” as well as Muslims and Sikhs. Gandhi , on the very next day had written to MacDonald – “I have to resist your decision with my life”. He declared fast unto death against the Communal Award. Thus option C is correct.
67. With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the statements :
1. The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the Government.
2. The Government gave Pattas to the Ryats.
3. The lands were surveyed and assessed before being taxed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A]1 Only
[B]1 & 2 Only
[C]1, 2 & 3
[D]None
1, 2 & 3
In the Ryotwari Settlement, it was theoretically proposed that annual agreements would have to be made with the cultivators. If the cultivators would agree, they would get Pattas. As per the system, Government was the Supreme landlord and the peasants were Land Owners, who obtained the title / patta by paying annual cash rents ot revenue assessment directly to the Government. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is also correct. Please note that a special state fee called Nazarana was charged for giving occupancy rights ot Pattas.
The third statement is also correct. In the Ryotwari System, the land revenue was assessed according to the fertility of land. The average assessment payable in cash was around Re. 1 per acre. However, practically, this was not done. If the system were efficient by making the surveys and assessment of the lands, the Ryotwari System would not have failed probably. The lands were taxes on guesswork and that is why peasants came under stress. This was the major reason of failure of Ryotwari System.
68. Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated with economic development:
1. Low birth rate with low death rate
2. High birthrate with high death rate
3. High birthrate with low death rate
Select the correct order of the above stages using the codes given below :
[A]1 2 3
[B]2 1 3
[C]2 3 1
[D]3 2 1
2 3 1
This is a very easy question. Economic Development means improved living conditions. Improved living conditions means low birth rate and low death rate. For example, we can say that India has achieved impressive demographic transition owing to the decline of crude birth rate, crude death rate, total fertility rate and infant mortality rate. Now, to arrange the above three, you may look at the following chart: 
Accordingly the correct answer would be 2 3 1
69. In India, in the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries have a combined weight of 37.90%. Which of the following are among those
Eight Core Industries?
1. Cement
2. Fertilizers
3. Natural gas
4. Refinery products
5. Textiles
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
[A]1 & 5 Only
[B]2, 3 & 4 Only
[C]1, 2 3 & 4 Only
[D]1, 2, 3 4 & 5
1, 2, 3 & 4 Only
The Eight core industries have a combined weight of 37.90 per cent in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). They are as follows:
Coal
Crude Oil
Natural Gas
Petroleum Refinery Products
Fertilizers
Steel (Alloy + Non-Alloy)
Cement
Electricity
70. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?
1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
3. Fifth Schedule
4. Sixth Schedule
5. Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
[A]1 & 2 Only
[B]3, 4, & 5 Only
[C]1, 2 & 5 only
[D]1, 2, 3 ,4 & 5
1, 2 & 5 only
DPSP:
41. The State shall, within the limits of its economic capacity and development, make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education and to
public
assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, and in other cases of undeserved want.
45: The State shall endeavour to provide, within a period of ten years from the commencement of this Constitution, for free and compulsory education for all
children until they complete the age of fourteen years.
Rural & Urban Local Bodies: ]
Article 350A: It shall be the endeavour of every State and of every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-
tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups; and the President may issue such directions to any State as
he considers necessary or proper for securing the provision of such facilities.
Fifth Schedule: ___
Sixth Schedule: Additional powers of the North Cachar Hills Autonomous Council and the Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council to make lawslaws.—(1)
Without prejudice to the provisions of paragraph 3, the North Cachar Hills Autonomous Council and the Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council within their
respective districts, shall have power to make laws with respect to—
(a) industries, subject to the provisions of entries 7 and 52 of List I of the Seventh Schedule; (b) communications, that is to say, roads, bridges, ferries and
other means of communication not specified in List I of the Seventh Schedule; municipal tramways, ropeways, inland waterways and traffic thereon subject
to the provisions of List I and List III of the Seventh Schedule with regard to such waterways; vehicles other than mechanically propelled vehicles; (c)
preservation, protection and improvement of stock and prevention of animal diseases; veterinary training and practice; cattle pounds; (d) primary and
secondary education;
Seventh Schedule:
State List : 25. Education, including technical education, medical education and universities, subject to the provisions of entries 63, 64, 65 and 66 of List I;
vocational and technical training of labour.’
In our view, the correct answer should be 1, 2, 4 & 5. However, we have ot been given this option. So correct option may be 1, 2 & 5 (Option C) provided
UPSC accepts it as a correct answer.
71. Government of India encourages the cultivation of ‘sea buckthorn ‘. What is the importance of this plant?
1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification.
2. It is a rich source of biodiesel.
3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes.
4. Its timber is of great commercial value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A]1 Only
[B]2, 3 & 4 Only
[C]1 & 3 Only
[D]1, 2, 3 & 4
1 & 3 Only
Sea- Buck Thorn
1. Seabuckthorn is a medicinal plant found in the Himalayan region. Our country holds tremendous potential in respect of Seabuckthorn fruit production and diverse varieties which have health-promoting properties and can play a crucial role in preventing soil erosion and help nitrogen fixation in cold and desert areas.
2. This is the most important environmental benefit of the Seabuckthron.
3. Seabuckthorn fruit grows in the cold deserts of Ladakh region of Jammu and Kashmir, Lahul-Spiti in Himachal Pradesh and some parts of Arunachal Pradesh.
Please note that as of now, it has not been established that Seabuckthorn oil is a “Rich” source of Biodiesel. It was studied as a good option / cadidate for the manufacture of biodiesel. The major use of seabuckthorn oil is in medicinal and food use. In my view, statement 2 is incorrect. Then, its a shrub, how it’s timber can be used and in what purpose?
National Mission on Seabuckthorn can be accessed here
72. Which of the following is the chief characteristic of ‘mixed fanning?
[A]Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops
[B]Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field
[C]Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together
[D]None of the above
Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together
In Indian context Mixed farming is the livestock production such as bovine stock, cattle and buffaloes, with which agriculture is integrated. Correct answer is C, UPSC framed the question poorly. They could put bit smarter question.
73. A particular State in India has the following characteristics:
1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan.
2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected Area Network in this State.
Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?
[A]Arunachal Pradesh
[B]Assam
[C]Himachal Pradesh
[D]Uttarakhand
Arunachal Pradesh
As per the State of Indian Forests Report 2011, in Arunachal Pradesh, the recorded forest area is 61.55% of its Geographical area. The protected areas here constitute 11.68% area of the state. The total forest cover of Arunachal Pradesh is 68,019 km², which is 81.22% of its area. So the correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh.
74. Consider the following crops of India :
1. Cowpea
2. Green gram
3. Pigeon pea
Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manure?
[A]1 & 2 Only
[B]2 & 3 Only
[C]1 & 3 Only
[D]1,2 & 3
1,2 & 3
Green manure crops or legumes like cowpea, horse gram and green gram improves precipitation-use efficiency during off -season. Cow Pea is Lobia. Lobia as a green manure puts in nitrogen, builds organic matter, smothers weeds and controls nematodes. Pieon Pea (Tur/ Arhar) is also extensively used as geen manure. Pulse and Fodder are all of them. So correct answer is 1, 2 & 3.
75. Consider the following factors
1. Rotation of the Earth
2. Air pressure and wind
3. Density of ocean water
4. Revolution of the Earth
Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?
[A]1 & 2 Only
[B]1, 2, 3
[C]1 & 4
[D]2, 3 & 4
1, 2, 3
The Rotation of Earth (Coriolis Force), forces acting via winds, temperature and salinity differences influence the ocean currents. Correct answer 1, 2 & 3.
76. Consider the following protected areas;
1. Bandipur
2. Bhitarkanika
3. Manas
4. Sunderbans
Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves?
[A]1 & 2 Only
[B]1, 3 and 4 Only
[C]2, 3 and 4 only
[D]1,2, 3 & 4
1, 3 and 4 Only
Bhitarkanika is not a tiger reserve
77. Consider the following statements :
1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India.
2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India decreases from east to west.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
[A]1 Only
[B]2 Only
[C]Both 1 & 2
[D]Neither 1 nor 2
Both 1 & 2
Both are correct statements.
78. Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical Savannah Region?
[A] Rainfall throughout the year
[B]Rainfall in winter only
[C]An extremely short dry season
[D]A definite dry and wet season
A definite dry and wet season
Tropical Savannah has a definite dry and wet season. The wet summer season lasts 6-8 months and during these days, there is plenty of rainfall. Winter lasts for 4-6 months and there might be no rains in winter. This winter is the dry season in which there are frequent forest fires.
79. In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people are not allowed to collect and use the biomass?
[A]Biosphere Reserves
[B]National Parks
[C]Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention
[D]Wildlife Sanctuaries
National Parks
80. Consider the following kinds of organisms:
1. Bat
2. Bee
3. Bird
Which of the above is/ an pollinating agent/agents?
[A]1 & 2 only
[B]2 Only
[C]1 and 3 only
[D]1, 2 & 3
1, 2 & 3
All are pollinating agents.
81. Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species?
[A]Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass
[B]Kashmir Stag, Cheetai, Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustard
[C]Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and Saras (Crane)
[D]Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and Cheetal
Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass
82. Consider the following statements If there were no phenomenon of capillarity
1. it would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp
2. one would not be able to use a straw to consume a soft drink
3. the blotting paper would fail to function
4. the big trees that we see around would not have grown on the Earth
Which of the statements given above are correct?
[A]1, 2 and 3 only
[B]1, 3 and 4 only
[C]2 and 4 only
[D]1, 2, 3 & 4
1, 3 and 4 only
83. The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes the following major categories of ecosystem services-provisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and cultural.
Which one of the following is supporting service?
[A]Production of food and water
[B]Control of climate and disease
[C]Nutrient cycling and crop pollination
[D]Maintenance of diversity
Nutrient cycling and crop pollination
Ecosystem services are the benefits people obtain from ecosystems. These include provisioning services such as food and water; regulating services such as flood and disease control; cultural services such as spiritual, recreational, and cultural benefits; and supporting services, such as nutrient cycling, that maintain the conditions for life on Earth.
84. What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru?
[A]Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains
[B]Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached for its musk
[C]Oryx exists in western India only whereas Chiru exists in north-cast India only
[D]None of the statements (a), (b) and © given above is correct
Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains All oryx species prefer near-desert conditions and can survive without water for long periods. Chiru is Tibetan antelope lives in cold high mountains.
85. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area?
1. Global warming
2. Fragmentation of habitat
3 .Invasion of alien species
4. Promotion of vegetarianism
Choose the correct answer:
[A]1,2 & 3
[B]2 & 3
[C]1 & 4
[D]1, 2 , 3 and 4
1,2 & 3
86. Consider the following:
1. Black-necked crane
2. Cheetah
3 .Flying squirrel
4. Snow leopard
Which of the above are naturally found in India?
[A]1, 2 and 3 only
[B]1, 3 and 4 only
[C]2 and 4 only
[D]1, 2, 3 and 4
1, 3 and 4 only
I think that UPSC gave a thought to the fact that as of now there are no Cheetahs in India that are naturally found. They used to be here once upon a time and now Government thinks to import them and reintroduce them here. So, the correct answer stands 1,3,4
87. Consider the following agricultural practices:
1. Contour bunding
2. Relay cropping
3. Zero tillage
In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon sequestration/storage in the soil?
[A]1 & 2 Only
[B]3 Only
[C]1,2 & 3
[D]None of them
1,2 & 3
Any method which helps the soil to retain more organic matter , so that it may work as an effective Carbon sink would be helpful in Carbon sequestrian or storage. The question gives you three options which you need to analyze one by one:
Contour Bunding:
Contour bunding Contour bunding is one of the extensively used soil and water conservation technique in several rainfed areas. Contour bunding is a mechanical measure which minimizs the soil erosion. Contour bunding involves the construction of small bunds across the slope of the land along a contour so that the long slope is reduced to a series of small ones. The contour bund acts as a barrier to flow of water down a slope and thus the benefit is that it increases the time so that water concentrates in an area and this more water is absorbed. The question is; whether the contour bunding helps in carbon sequestrian or not . The answer is YES. Contour bunding increases the water holding capacity while minimizing the surface evaporation. Then soil erosion is minimized, and surface residues favour the nutrient recycling and result in higher carbon storage in the soil. This is a correct option.
Relay Cropping:
Relay cropping means that new a crop is planted or sown before the previous one is harvested. This can provide advantages for both crops as one of them may provide nitrogen, shade, support or may discourage pests. The obvious benefit of Relay cropping is soil conservation. Then, relay cropping helps in better yield and also helps in solid conservation. It does help in Carbon Sequestrian. This is also a correct answer.
Zero Tillage:
Zero tillage is also based upon the premise of soil conservation, basic premise is to minimize the disturbances to the soil leading to an increase in retention of water, nutrients and topsoil itself. No-till has carbon sequestration potential through storage of soil organic matter in the soil of crop fields.
Thus, we conclude that all options help in carbon storage and correct answer is C that is 1, 2 & 3
One more thing I would like to tell you. These practices are called C-Enhancement Practices (CEP). CEPs consist of a single technology or practice aimed at conserving or enhancing carbon stock in selected land categories. Potential CEPs are mulching, organic manure application, green manure application, reduced or zero tillage, contour bunding, farm ponds, tank silt application, intercropping or multiple cropping, and cover cropping. :)
88. What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason?
1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected .
2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected.
3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease
Select the correct answer:
[A]1 & 2 Only
[B]2 Only
[C]3 Only
[D]1, 2 & 3
1 & 2 Only
89. Vultures which used to be very common in Indian countryside some years ago are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to:
[A]the destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species
[B]a drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle
[C]scarcity of food available to them
[D]a widespread, persistent and fatal disease among them
a drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle and you know which is that drug :)
90. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996. What is the role/power of Gram Sabha?
1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
2 . Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas .
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A]1 Only
[B]1 and 2 Only
[C]2 & 3 Only
[D]1,2, & 3
1 and 2 Only
In this question, plese note that there is a very big difference between minor mineral and ‘any’ mineral, and your examiner is expecting you to differentiate these two. The act says that the recommendations of the Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the appropriate level shall be made mandatory prior to grant of prospecting licence or mining lease for minor minerals in the Scheduled Areas. This is why, the statement 3 need to be eliminated.
91. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is:
[A]to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
[B]to let opposition collect information ministers members from the
[C]to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
[D] to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members
to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
Objective of an adjournment motion is to draw the attention of the House to a recent matter of urgent public importance having serious consequences and in regard to which a motion or a resolution with proper notice will be too late.
92. How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian agriculture?
1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants.
3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to resources genetic/biological cannot be made without approval of NBA.
Which of the statements given a above is/are correct?
[A]1 Only
[B]2 & 3 Only
[C]1 & 3 Only
[D]1,2 & 3
1 & 3 Only
93. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?
1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21
2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275( 1)
3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)
Select the correct answer:
[A]1 Only
[B]2 & 3 Only
[C]1 & 3 only
[D]1,2 & 3
1 Only
94. If National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it impact the country?
1. Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of wastewater.
2. The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the use of ocean
water.
3. All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular India.
4. The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore-wells a and for installing motors and pump-sets to draw groundwater will be completely reimbursed by the Government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
[A]1 Only
[B]1 & 2 Only
[C]3 & 4 Only
[D]1,2,3 & 4
1 & 2 Only
95. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India:
1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
2. Organizing village Panchayats
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
4 . Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities
Which of the above Gandhian Principles reflected in the Directive of State Policy?
[A]1,2 & 4 Only
[B]2 & 3 Only
[C]1,3 & 4 Only
[D]1,2 3 & 4
2 & 3 Only
Article 40, 47 and 48 are based upon Gandhian Principles. They are as follows:
Article 40: Organization of Village Panchayats
Article 47 : Nutrition and standard of Living
Article 48: Prevention of cow slaughter, organization of agriculture and animal husbandry
96. Consider the following statements
1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
2. It is within the preview of Chief Election commissioner to adjudicate election disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A]1 Only
[B]2 & 3
[C]1 & 3
[D]None
None
97. With reference to consumers’ rights/ privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/arc correct?
1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his / her behalf.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
[A]1 Only
[B]2 & 3 Only
[C]1 & 3 Only
[D]1,2 & 3
1 & 3 Only
There is a nominal fee that is to be paid.
98. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements :
1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A]1 & 2 Only
[B]3 Only
[C]1, 2, & 3
[D]None
3 Only
99. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State
3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union territory
4. A dispute between two or more States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
[A]1 & 2
[B]2 & 3
[C]1 & 4
[D]3 & 4
1 & 4
Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court extends to any dispute between
1.Government of India and one or more States
2.between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more States on the other or between two or more States, if insofar as the dispute involves any question (whether of law or of fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends.
In addition, Article 32 of the Constitution gives an extensive original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court in regard to enforcement of Fundamental Rights. It is empowered to issue directions, orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari to enforce them.
100. Consider the following kinds of organisms:
1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Flowering plants
Some species of which of the above kinds of organisms are employed as biopesticides?
[A]1 Only
[B]2 & 3 Only
[C]1 & 3 Only
[D]1,2 & 3
1,2 & 3
Neem is the best example of flowering plant as biopesticide.,