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UPSC Prelims Solution 2012 by GKToday

Dear Readers,
Thanks for your continued support and faith in GKToday.
Every year, we try our best to provide the reliable solution of the General Studies Paper of the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. I take this opportunity to congratulate my students Mudit Rai, Vipul Goel, Vivekanand Singh, Prabhakar Prakash Ranjan, Anshul Gupta and Ullas Kumar for a success in last year’s examination. GKToday wishes them all the best for future career plans.
I would also like to congratulate my blogger friend Nikhil Pavan Kalyan of www.worthview.com for outstanding success in Civil Services 2011 and achieving AIR 60.

All efforts have been made to make this information as accurate as possible; www.gktoday.in or its author will not be responsible for any loss to any person caused by inaccuracy in the information available in this Mock Test Series. Answers provided in this document may vary with the official answers released by UPSC after the examination process is over.

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1. The endeavour of ‘Janani Suraksha Yojana’ Programme is
1. to promote institutional deliveries
2. to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery
3. to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A]1 & 2 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C]3 Only
[D]1, 2, & 3

1 & 2 Only
Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is an ambitious scheme launched under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM), the Government of India’s flagship health programme. The scheme is intervention for safe motherhood and seeks to reduce maternal and neo-natal mortality by promoting institutional delivery, i.e. by providing a cash incentive to mothers who deliver their babies in a health facility. There is also provision for cost reimbursement for transport and incentives to Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHA) for encouraging mothers to go for institutional delivery. The scheme is fully sponsored by the Central Government and is implemented in all states and Union Territories (UTs), with special focus on low performing states. There is provision for roping in the private sector by giving accreditation to willing private hospitals/nursing homes for providing delivery services. The wage loss scheme is IGMSY. The correct answer of this question is 1 & 2. The two schemes, we have compared many times. There was a question in GKToday’s Mock Tests also which you can access on this page Question number 9


2. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment:
[A]need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months
[B] need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
[C]must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament
[D]must be a member of the Lok Sabha

Correct Answer is A


3. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A]Only 1
[B]Only 2
[C]Both 1 & 2
[D]Neither 1 nor 2

Both 1 & 2
The Commission is a powerful body whose orders cannot be challenged in a court of law. The orders are laid before the Lok Sabha and the respective
State Legislative Assemblies. However, modifications are not permitted.


4. Consider the following:
1. Hotels and restaurants
2. Motor transport undertakings
3. Newspaper establishments
4. Private medical institutions
The employees of which of the above can have the ‘Social Security’ coverage under “Employees’ State Insurance Scheme’?
[A]Only 1, 2 & 3
[B]4 Only
[C]1, 3 & 4 Only
[D]1, 2, 3 & 4

1, 2, 3 & 4
Employees’ State Insurance Scheme of India is an integrated social security scheme tailored to provide social protection to workers and their dependants, in the organised sector, in contingencies, such as, sickness, maternity and death or disablement due to an employment injury or occupational hazard.
The ESI Act applies to any premises/precincts, where 10 or more persons are employed. A factory or an establishment located in a geographical area notified for implementation of the Scheme, falls under the purview of the Act. Employees of the aforesaid categories of factories and establishments, drawing wages upto Rs.15,000/- (w.e.f. 01.05.2010) a month, are entitled to social security cover under the ESI Act. The wage ceiling for purpose of coverage of employees is revised from time to time, to keep pace with rising cost of living and consequent wage hikes.
The “appropriate Government” State or Central is empowered to extend the provisions of the ESI Act to various classes of establishments, industrial, commercial or agricultural or otherwise. Under these enabling provisions most of the State Govts have extended the ESI Act to certain specific class of establishments, such as, shops, hotels, restaurants, cinemas, preview theatres, motors transport undertakings and newspaper establishments etc., employing 20 or more persons. Further under section 1(5) of the Act, the Scheme has been extended to Private Medical and Educational institutions employing 20* or more persons in certain States/UTs. The correct answer of this question is 1, 2, 3 & 4.


5. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?
1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
[A]1 Only
[B]2 & 4 Only
[C]1, 3 & 4 Only
[D]1, 2, 3 & 4

1, 3 & 4 Only
Finance Commission is obviously correct. CAG report is placed as per article 151. (1). NCSC is as per article 338. Public Account Committee is not
there. So correct answer is 1, 3 & 4


6. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of
1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
[A]Only 1
[B]2 & 3 Only
[C]1 & 3 Only
[D]1, 2 & 3

Only 1
The article 368 says that the constitution amendment bills have to be passed by both houses individually. In case of any disagreement between the two Houses of Parliament on a Constitution Amendment Bill, there CANNOT be a joint sitting of the Houses of Parliament. Then how to move forward?
You can not move forward in fact :) The fate of such bills is decided in this way only, no alternatives.

The makers of the constitution did not want that every now and then the MPS sit together and make changes in it. The idea is to make the “constitution amendment difficult” so that its value can be retained.

This means that the amending power of the parliament is subject to procedural check via the amending power itself. The procedure laid down in article 368 has basically imposed restriction on the parliament itself. You can imagine, how difficult is it to gain two third majority of members present and voting and then absolute majority of the total members of each house of the parliament. Please note that in past a CPI member Bhupesh Gupta had once brought forward a bill, which sought to amend the article 368 and provide for a joint sitting. It was not passed, because it itself was a Constitution amendment bill :) Then, a deadlock on Money Bill does not arises. Correct answer Only 1


7. How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?
1. DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country.
2 .DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures .
3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.
4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilization of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A]1, 2 & 3 Only
[B]3 & 4 Only
[C]4 Only
[D]1, 2, 3 & 4

3 & 4 Only
DRDA watch over and ensure effective utilization of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes. Statement 4 is correct. Then, the endeavour and objective of the DRDAs is to secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for reducing poverty in the district. Statement 3 is correct. Only these two statements are correct in this question. So Correct Answer is 3 & 4 ONLY.


8. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties, laid down in the Indian Constitution?
1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
Select the correct answer, using the codes below:
[A]1 & 2 Only
[B]2 Only
[C]1, 3, & 4 Only
[D]1, 2, 3 & 4

1, 3, & 4 Only
Fundamental Duties: Article 51 A
(a) to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem;
(b) to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom;
(c) to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;
(d) to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;
(e) to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional
diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women;
(f) to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture;
(g) to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures;
(h) to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
(i) to safeguard public property and to abjure violence;
(j) to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and
achievement;
(k) who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.


9. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?
1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India .
2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme court the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[A]1 & 3 Only
[B]3 & 4 Only
[C]4 Only
[D]1, 2, 3 & 4

1 & 3 Only
Let me analyse the statements one by one:
Fist statement:
While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India
We should note that that the mechanism for the appointment of judges to the high courts and the Supreme Court has changed after the 1993 and 1998 verdicts of the Supreme Court. Today, the Executive and Legislative organs of the State have no real role in the appointment of judges. According to Article 124 (2) of the Constitution, every judge of the Supreme Court shall be appointed by the President after consultations with such judges as the President may deem necessary. But in the case of the appointment of a judge other than the chief justice, Chief Justice of India shall always be consulted. The statement is correct and to a great extent, safeguards the autonomy of honourable Supreme Court of India.
Second Statement:
The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
This is a wrong statement.
As per Article 124 (4) the Judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from his office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two thirds of the members of that House present and voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Please also note that the provision for the removal of judges of the Supreme Court or high courts under Article 124 (4) for proven misbehaviour has become inoperative in practice, as has been proved in the Justice Ramaswamy impeachment case. There are no provisions to deal with deviant behaviour as distinct from “proven misbehaviour”. In other words, under the present dispensation, a judge is appointed solely on the recommendation of the judiciary and, for all practical purposes, no judge can ever be removed. To correct this absurd situation a national judicial commission with a decisive say in the appointment and removal of judges has been proposed.
Third Statement:
The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.This is a correct statement and most of you know about this.
Fourth Statement:
All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme court the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.This is an incorrect statement. The Supreme Court Officers and Servants (Conditions of Service and Conduct) make different rulings, where the role of Government is actually nothing. The clause 6 says that all appointments of the Court Servants shall be made by Chief Justice in his absolute discretion.


10. To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on Thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this
context, what advantage does Thorium hold over uranium?
1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.
2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium.
3. Thorium produces less harmful waste in comparison to uranium.
Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?
[A]1 Only
[B]2 & 3 Only
[C]1 & 3 Only
[D]1,2 & 3

1,2 & 3
Thorium fuel generates no new bomb-usable material in the waste profile; the waste consists of the radioisotope Uranium-233, or U233, which is virtually impossible to weaponize/ Thorium fuel will generate more energy per unit of mass than uranium fuel by a factor of approximately 30. Thorium is four times more abundant in nature than uranium, and is widely distributed throughout the Earth’s crust. All statements in this question are correct.

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